Polity Top 50 MCQs : Questions with Detailed Explanation : UPSC/HCS Exam Preparation
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Polity Top 50 MCQs: Questions with Detailed Explanation: UPSC/HCS Exam Preparation
Indian Polity is easy to understand but it is harder to attempt the questions correctly in the Civil Services because the questions asked are very ambiguous. It is observed that a lot of questions are asked from the Indian Polity in almost every competitive exam held in India. For the convenience of the aspirants of the different exams like UPSC/HCS etc., we have given answers and explanations of every question.
Q1. The Indian Legislature was made bi-cameral for the first time by -
(a)Indian Council Act of 1892
(b)Indian Council Act of 1909
(c)The Government of India Act of 1919
(d)The Government of India Act of 1935
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
Q2. Which of the following Act introduced Dyarchy at the centre?
(a)Indian Council Act of 1909
(b)The Government of India Act of 1919
(c)The Government of India Act of 1935
(d)The Indian Independence Act of 1947
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935 were as follows:
1)Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at centre.
2)Abolition of Indian Council and introduction of an advisory body in its place.
3)Provision for an All India Federation with British India territories and princely states.
4)Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.
5)Increase in size of legislatures, extension of franchise, division of subjects into three lists and retention of communal electorate.
Q3. Who among the following was the advisor to the Drafting Committee of the Constitution Assembly?
(a)B. Shiva Rao
(b)BR AMbedkar
(c)Sachidananda Sinha
(d)BN Rau
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Sir Benegal Narsing Rau, CIE, was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was also India's representative to the United Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952.
Q4. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a)Jawaharlal Nehru
(b)BR Ambedkar
(c)BN Rau
(d)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Q5. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of-
(a)Division of powers between the centre and the states
(b)Centralisation of powers
(c)Balance of powers
(d)Separation of Powers
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs.
Q6. Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?
(a)USA
(b)UK
(c)India
(d)Pakistan
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The constitution of the United Kingdom is the system of rules that shapes the political governance of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. The UK constitution is not contained in a single code, but principles have emerged over the centuries from statute, case law, political conventions and social consensus.
Unlike most modern states, Britain does not have a codified constitution but an unwritten one formed of Acts of Parliament, court judgments and conventions.
Q7. The English Crown is an example of-
(a)Real executive
(b)Quasi-Real executive
(c)Nominal executive
(d)Nominated executive
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Nominal executive: The Executive is not directly involved in the governance of the country. The Executive remains as a figure-head and performs ceremonial functions. It has limited powers under the Constitution and must act in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. He/She summons parliament; prorogues and dissolves it on the advice of the Prime Minister.It is not involved in policy-making or policy execution. Examples are: The Yang di-Pertuan Agong; the British Queen (Head of State).
Q8. Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?
(a)Britain
(b)France
(c)Belgium
(d)Switzerland
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The modern concept of parliamentary government emerged in the Kingdom of Great Britain between 1707–1800 and its contemporary, the Parliamentary System in Sweden between 1721–1772. In England, Simon de Montfort is remembered as one of the fathers of representative government for convening two famous parliaments.
Q9. Who called Indian Federalism as the co-operative Federalism?
(a)G. Austin
(b)KC Wheare
(c)Sir Ivor Jennings
(d)DD Basu
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Granville Austin called Indian Federalism as Cooperative Federalism.
Cooperative federalism, also known as marble-cake federalism, is a concept of federalism in which federal, state, and local governments interact cooperatively and collectively to solve common problems, rather than making policies separately but more or less equally (such as the dual federalism of the 19th-century United States) or clashing over a policy in a system dominated by the national government.
Q10. What is the other name of Act 1909?
(a)Morley- Minto Reforms
(b)Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms
(c)Second Reform Act
(d)None of these
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act 1909 was an act of the British Parliament that introduced a few reforms in the legislative councils and increased the involvement of Indians (limited) in the governance of British India. It was more commonly called the Morley-Minto Reforms after the Secretary of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of India, the 4th Earl of Minto.
Q11. How long did it take to write the Indian Constitution?
(a)86 days
(b)165 days
(c) 225 days
(d)322 days
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months and seventeen days to be precise) to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India. During this period, it held eleven sessions covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114 days were spent on the consideration of the Draft Constitution.
Q12. Which of the following is an essential attribute of the State?
(a) Democracy
(b)Socialism
(c)Nationalism
(d)Sovereignty
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The state has four essential attributes, viz., Population, Territory, Government and Sovereignty. Population and territory constitute the physical basis of the State while government and sovereignty constitute its legal basis or political basis.
Q13. The concept of Judicial Review in our Constitution has been taken from the constitution of-
(a)England
(b)USA
(c)Canada
(d)Australia
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Following features are taken from the US Constitution:
- Impeachment of the president
- Functions of president and vice-president
- Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges
- Fundamental Rights
- Judicial review
- Independence of judiciary
Q14. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which of the following-
(a)Parliamentary Commissioner of UK
(b)Ombudsman in Scandinavia
(c)Procurator General of Russia
(d)Council of State in Japan
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India (1966–1970) recommended the setting of two special authorities designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand. The Lokpal would deal with complaints against ministers and secretaries at Central and state levels, and the Lokayukta (one at the Centre and one in every state) would deal with complaints against other specified higher officials.
Q15. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of India?
(a)The Government of India Act of 1919
(b)The Government of India Act of 1935
(c)The Indian Independence Act of 1947
(d)None of the above
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The basic structure of Indian constitution stands on the Government of India Act, 1935.
Following features are taken from it:
1)Federal Scheme (also from constitution of Canada)
2)Office of Governor
3)Judiciary
4)Public Service Commission
5)Emergency Provisions
6)Administrative Details
Q16.Who was called 'Father of the Communal electorate'?
(a)Lord Morley
(b) Lord Minto
(c)Lord Morley-Minto
(d)Lord William Bentick
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Indian Council Act of 1909 is also known as Morley- Minto Reform. It was instituted to placate the Moderates ( Congress) and introduces separate electorates on the basis of religion. Therefore Lord Minto came to be known as Father of Communal Electorate in India.
Q17. The constitution of India is
(a)Flexible
(b)Rigid
(c)partly rigid and partly flexible
(d)none of these
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Indian constitution is the bulkiest and lengthiest constitution of the world.The Constitution of India is neither wholly rigid nor wholly flexible. It is partly rigid and partly flexible. . It is flexible because provisions may be amended or modified by ordinary legislative process. In case of rigid constitution special procedures are required for amending them.
Q18. Who wrote the Indian constitution by hand?
(a)Sachchidananda sinha
(b)H.C.Mukherjee
(c)BN Rau
(d)Prem Behari Narain Raizada
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The original constitution is hand-written, with each page decorated by artists from Shantiniketan including Beohar Rammanohar Sinha and Nandalal Bose. Its calligrapher was Prem Behari Narain Raizada. The constitution was published in Dehradun and photolithography by the Survey of India.
Q19. The Scheme of Indian federation in Indian constitution taken from –
(a)United State of America
(b)Canada
(c)United Kingdom
(d) Ireland
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Federation with a strong centre in India constitution is taken from Canada.
It is imbibed from the Canadian model of federalism. The Constitution of India establishes a federal structure to the Indian government, declaring it to be a "Union of States".
Q20. The Right to Property, which was earlier a fundamental right, is now contained in
(a)Part X
(b)Part XI
(c) Part XII
(d) Part XIV
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The right to property was initially present in Indian constitution under part III : Fundamental right , Article 31 but it was abolished by 44 th Amendment Act ,1978. Initially it was made a fundamental right so as to provide protection of property and give legality of land to the people living in newly independent India.
Now it is made a constitutional right under Article 300A (in Part XII)which states that no person can be deprived of his / her property except by authority of law.
Q21. How many members signed the Indian constitution?
(a)299
(b)289
(c)284
(d)276
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November, 1949 and the hon'ble members appended their signatures to it on 24 January, 1950. Out of a total 299 members of the assembly only 284 were actually present on that day and signed the constitution.
Q22. Which amendment act introduced the changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a)38th
(b)40th
(c)42nd
(d)44th
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment amended the Preamble and changed the description of India from "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".
Q23. Which among the following is the correct explanation of the term ‘Secular’ in India?
(a)India has many religions
(b)Indians have religious freedom
(c)To follow the religion depends upon the will of an individual
(d)There is no religion of the State in India
Answer (d)
Explanation:
There is no religion of the State in India. But it does not mean the separation of religion from state. Instead, secularism in India means a state that supports or participates in a neutral manner in the affairs of all religious groups.
Q24. Which of the following liberties is NOT embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a)Liberty of thought
(b)Liberty of expression
(c)Liberty of belief
(d)Economic liberty
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The idea of Liberty refers to the freedom of the activities of Indian nationals. This establishes that there are no unreasonable restrictions on Indian citizens in terms of what they think, their manner of expressions and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action. However, liberty does not mean freedom to do anything, and it must be exercised within the constitutional limits.
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; is mentioned in the preamble.
Q25. The Preamble to the Constitution declares India as-
(a)A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b)A Socialist Democratic Republic
(c)A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(d)A Federal Democratic Republic
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Following is the text of the preamble:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In Our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do Hereby Adopt, Enact And Give To Ourselves This Constitution.
Q26. Who first signed the Indian constitution?
(a)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b)Jawaharlal Nehru
(c)Feroze Gandhi
(d)Sardar Patel
Answer (a)
Explanation:
It was first signed by Dr Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, while the last to sign in was Feroze Gandhi, the president of the Constituent Assembly. Shri Behari shows the first manuscript to Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Q27. Name the first ever female prime minister in the world.
(a)Indira Gandhi
(b)Sirimavo Bandaranaike
(c)Golda Meir
(d)Elisabeth Domitien
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The first ever female Prime Minister in the world was Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike in 1960. She served three terms in 1960–1965, 1970–1977 and 1994–2000.
Q28. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the Uniform Civil Code?
(a)Article 43
(b)Article 44
(c)Article 45
(d)Article 46
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Uniform civil code is the ongoing point of debate within Indian mandate to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set of rules governing every citizen. Article 44 of the Directive Principles expects the state to apply these while formulating policies for the country. Apart from being an important issue regarding secularism in India & fundamental right to practice religion contained in Article 25, it became one of the most controversial topics in contemporary politics during the Shah Bano case in 1985.
Q29. In which part of the Indian Constitution are centre-state relations mentioned?
(a)Part IV (Article 227 to 234)
(b)Part XI (Article 245 to 255)
(c)Part X (Article 234 to 240)
(d)Part XII (Article 265 to 277)
Answer (b)
Explanation:
India is a union of states. The constitution of India has divided the legislative, executive and financial powers between the centre and the states, which gives the constitution a federal character whereas judiciary is integrated in a hierarchical structure.
The centre-state relations are divided into three parts, which are mentioned below:
(A) Legislative Relations (Article 245-255)
(B) Administrative Relations (Article 256-263)
(C) Financial Relations (Article 268-293)
Q30. The _____________ was a group of seven Members of Parliament from the United Kingdom, constituted to suggest constitutional reforms for British India.
a)Fraser Commission
(b) Hunter Commission
(c)Sargent Commission
(d)Simon Commission
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The Indian Statutory Commission, commonly referred to as the Simon Commission, was a group of seven British Members of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon. The commission arrived in British India in 1928 to study constitutional reform in Britain's most important colony.
Q31. Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as-
(a)Federal State
(b)Quasi-Federal State
(c)Unitary State
(d)Union of States
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Article 1 in The Constitution Of India 1949
- Name and territory of the Union
(1) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States
(2) The States and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule
(3) The territory of India shall comprise
Q32. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with-
(a)Fundamental Rights
(b)Citizenship
(c)Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)Union Executive
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Part IV of Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP). The provisions contained in this Part cannot be enforced by any court, but these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Q33. How many languages have been recognized by the Constitution of India?.
(a)15
(b)18
(c)22
(d)24
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 languages, which have been referred to as scheduled languages and given recognition, status and official encouragement. In addition, the Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Sanskrit, Tamil and Telugu.
Q34. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with-
(a)Anti-Defection Law
(b)Panchayati Raj
(c)Land Reforms
(d)Distribution of Powers between the Centre and the States
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
1) The decision on question as to disqualification on ground of defection is referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, and his decision is final.
2)The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Q35. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by which of the following amendment acts?
(a)1st
(b)8th
(c)9th
(d)42nd
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The first constitutional amendment Act of 1951 added Ninth Schedule in the Constitution to shield acts of the government of acquiring property as not discriminatory and excluding judicial review on acts listed in Ninth Schedule.
Q36. Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab Reorganisation Act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?
(a)Dhar Commission
(b)Dass Commission
(c)Shah Commission
(d)Mahajan Commission
Answer (c)
Explanation:
On 23 April 1966, acting on the recommendation of the Hukam Singh Committee, the Indian government set up the Shah Commission under the chairmanship of Justice J. C. Shah, to divide and set up the boundaries of Punjab and Haryana. The commission gave its report on 31 May 1966.
Q37. Of the following, the town that does not come within the National Capital Region(NCR) is-
(a)Panipat
(b)Rohtak
(c)Khurja
(d)Mathura
Answer (d)
Explanation:
The National Capital Region (NCR) is a central planning region centred upon the National Capital Territory in India. It encompasses the entire NCT of Delhi and several districts surrounding it from the states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Q38. The power to curve out a new State is vested in-
(a)The Parliament
(b)The President
(c)The Council of Ministers
(d)States’s Reorganisation Commission
Answer (a)
Explanation:
This power is given under article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 3 in The Constitution Of India 1949
Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States: Parliament may by law
(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
(e) alter the name of any State;
Q39. Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in-
(a)1950
(b)1953
(c)1956
(d)1961
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Andhra State was created in 1953 but it excluded a few Telugu-speaking areas in Hyderabad State. Andhra Pradesh became the first state in India constituted under the State Reorganisation Act of 1956.
Q40. Which country accepted the policy of Dual Citizenship?
(a)India
(b)USA
(c)Canada
(d)Australia
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Dual citizenship or dual nationality is simply being a citizen of two countries. For example, if you were born in Mexico you are a native-born Mexican. If you move to the United States and become a naturalized US citizen, you now have dual citizenship. Dual citizens can carry two passports and essentially live, work, and travel freely within their native and naturalized countries. Some dual citizens also enjoy the privilege of voting in both countries, owning property in both countries, and having government health care in both countries.
Q41. Who was the prime minister of India during “the Emergency” between the years 1975 to 1977?
(a)Indira Gandhi
(b)Rajiv Gandhi
(c)Morarji Desai
(d)Charan Singh
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Emergency refers to a 19-month period from 1975 to 1977 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had a state of emergency declared across the country. Officially issued by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under Article 352 of the Constitution because of the prevailing "internal disturbance", the Emergency was in effect from 26 June 1975 until its withdrawal on 21 March 1977. She was the first and only female Prime Minister of India Till date.
Q42. The Parliament of India consists of __________.
(a)President, House of the People and Council of States
(b)House of the People
(c) House of the People and Council of States
(d)Council of States
Answer (a)
Explanation:
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India. It is a bicameral legislature composed of the President of India and the two houses:
- the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and
- the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
The President in his role as head of legislature has full powers to summon and prorogue either house of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
Q43. Which of the following countries has the largest parliament in the world?
(a)UK
(b)India
(c)China
(d)Japan
Answer (c)
Explanation:
China has the largest parliament in the world. The indirectly elected National People's Congress of China is the largest legislature in the world, by number of members i.e. 2980. The Parliament of the United Kingdom is the largest bicameral legislature, with 1,443 members.
Q44.When was the constitution of Pakistan enforced?
(a) 1973
(b)1947
(c)1965
(d)1952
Answer (a)
Explanation:
After nine years of efforts, Pakistan was successful in framing a constitution. The Constituent Assembly adopted it on 29 February 1956, and it was enforced on 23 March 1956, proclaiming Pakistan to be an Islamic republic.
The 3rd Constitution of Pakistan was enforced on 23rd March 1973.
Q45.Which of the following is called the ‘popular chamber’?
(a)State Assembly
(b)Rajya Sabha
(c)Lok Sabha
(d)Gram Sabha
Answer (c)
Explanation:
Lok Sabha is called the popular chamber.
Q46. As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding:
(a)Thiry Lakhs
(b)Forty Lakhs
(c)Ten Lakhs
(d)Twenty Lakhs
Answer (d)
Explanation:
There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels in accordance with the provisions of this Part. Notwithstanding anything in Clause (1), Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
Q47.The First Health Minister of Independent India was?
(a)Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(d)Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Answer (d)
Explanation:
Rajkumari Bibiji Amrit Kaur DStJ (2 February 1889 – 6 February 1964) was an Indian activist and politician. Following her long-lasting association with the Indian independence movement, she was appointed the first Health Minister of India in 1947 and remained in office until 1957.
Q48.Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
(a)Prime Minister
(b)The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c)The Vice President
(d)President
Answer (b)
Explanation:
The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Q49. Name the ‘Father of Indian Economic Reforms’
(a)Narendra Modi
(b)PV Narasimha Rao
(c)Manmohan Singh
(d)Yashwant Sinha
Answer (b)
Explanation:
Former Prime Minister PV Narasimha Rao's political career was shaped by his involvement in India's struggle for independence from British colonial rule. His early mentors included Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi. In fact, it was his loyalty to the Nehru-Gandhi dynasty that got him the nation's top job after Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in 1991. He held the post until 1996.
Q50. Which of the following committees recommended inclusion of fundamental duties?
(a)Tarapore Committee
(b))Radha Krishnan Committee
(c)Swaran Singh Committee
(d)Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Answer (c)
Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the government earlier that year. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens and not to the aliens.
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