UPSC Prelims 2012 GS Paper answer and detailed solution
mobile-whatsapp-img
9817390373,8295688244
Baljit Dhaka

UPSC Prelims 2012 GS Paper answer and detailed solution

Validity: 9 Months
What you will get
Course Highlights
  • Based on latest Pattern
  • English Medium eBooks
Click to Bookmark
Language:
EN हिंदी

UPSC Prelims 2012 GS Paper answer and detailed solution 

Correct option is (a) 1 & 2 only   Questions Paper 
Explanation:
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY):
This is a part of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) to reduce neonatal and maternal mortality by encouraging institutional delivery of poor women. 
Launched on April 12, 2005 by prime minister in all the states and UTs focusing especially on poor performance states.
It is totally sponsored by centre and also provides money support for post-delivery and delivery care.
ASHA is considered as the link between poor women and government in poor performing states.
Every pregnancy s registered under this yojana to monitor post delivery care and antenatal check up.
Cash assistance for below poverty line women who possess BPL certificate.

2. Correct option is (a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
Explanation:
Prime Minister of India:
No specific procedure of appointment is specified in constitution of India.
Article 75 points that the prime minister shall be appointed by the president from the majority party. 
President asks prime minister to prove his/her majority in the lok sabha after appointment.
Supreme court in 1997 stated that prime minister may/maynot be the member of any house of the parliament at the time of appointment. But, he/she should become member of any house (lok sabha/rajya sabha) within six months of appointment; otherwise, he ceases to be prime minister. 

3. Correct option is (c) Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
Delimitation Commission of India:
Established by the government under delimitation commission act
The main aim of this is to change the boundaries of lok sabha and assembly constituencies according to the latest census. 
This commission is very powerful and cannot be challenged under any provision in court of law.
The orders of boundary changes are placed before state assemblies and lok sabha and hence no modification is permitted.
As of now, four commissions are set up- 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 as per the census data. 

4. Correct option is (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Explanation: 
Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI):
It is intended to protect employees from hazards of maternity, sickness, death and disablement during work.
It provides medical care to the insured person and his/her family.
Comes under the control of Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Eligibility: To all factory-working employees in which factory employs more than 10 persons; those who work in restaurants, shops, hotels, cinemas, newspaper establishments and road motor transport undertakings.
Employee should register himself and possess Temporary Identification Certificate to claim the benefits.
Later extended to private medical institutions which have more than 20 employees.

5. Correct option is (c) 1, 3 & 4 Only
Explanation: 
The constitution of India has given certain powers and duties to president for the smooth functioning of the government.
As president is part of the parliament, he has been given with some legislative powers.
However, it is responsibility of president to submit the reports of Union Public Service Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General,Finance Commission and other such reports before parliament. 
Article 151 asks CAG to submit reports (appropriation account, public undertakings and finance accounts) to president who in turn submits them to parliament. 
Finance Commission which is appointed by president for every five years submits report to the president. While president submits the report to parliament, the house discusses the suggestions given in the report and finally implements the report submitted by finance commission.
President may appoint national commission for scheduled castes which submits reports to the president as asked by him (Article 338).

6. Correct option is (a) Only 1
Explanation: 
In general, bill becomes an act if it is passed by both the houses. But, sometimes, a deadlock may arise between two houses when the bill passed in one house is rejected by the other. 
In such cases, there is an option of joint sitting of the parliament as laid out in constitution of India which is organised by president and chaired by Lok Sabha speaker.
Article 368 in constitutions provides amendment procedure so that the parliament can ass constitutional amendment bills accordingly. If there is disagreement between the two houses regarding amendment bill,  there is no such option of joint sitting and the bill gets lapsed.
In all the other bills, president may organise joint sitting to resolve the issue.
In case of money bills, the deadlock does not arise as lok sabha has supreme powers and passes bill even if Rajya Sabha disagrees it.

7. Correct option is (b) 3 & 4 only
Explanation: 
District Rural Development Agencies (DRDA):
This agency is responsible for the checking the implementation of anti-poverty programmes of Rural Development Ministry.
The poverty alleviation programmes and rural development programmes are implemented on the basis of decentralisation because of large geographical areas.
At centre, the responsibility of implementation of rural development programmes is given to Rural Areas & Employment ministry. 
This ministry releases funds, formulates policy and monitor all the programmes.
DRDA reaches to the rural people and provides them the benefits of appropriate schemes based on their needs.
DRDA has been given the role of managerial, technical and financial (disburse funds)

8. Correct option is (c) 1,3 & 4
Explanation: Fundamental duties are introduced in the constitution through 73rd constitutional amendment act and are contained in article 51A, part IVA.
Fundamental duties: 
to abide by the constitution and respect its ideal and institutions
to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to have compassion for living creatures
to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement. 
who is a parent or guardian , to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (This duty is added through 86th constitutional amendment 2002).

9. Correct option is (a) 1 & 3 only
Explanation: The constitution can provided enough measures to safeguard the autonomy of supreme court of India to keep it out of reach of political influence. This can be witnessed by following statements:
Article 125 gives president the power to appoint supreme court judges only after the consultation of chief justice of India.
Article 127 provides president power to appoint high court judges after consulting governor of state, chief justice of india and chief justice of high court (incase, appointment of judge other than chief justice).
All the staff of supreme court is appointed only by the chief justice without any interference of government
All the expenses including salaries and allowances of supreme court are charged on consolidated fund of India on which legislature has no voting right.
Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of judges except through impeachment.
Parliament cannot curtail the jurisdiction of supreme court as guaranteed by the constitution of India. 
Constitution ahs provided enough measures to separate judiciary from executive to minimise the interferences. 

10.    Correct option is (d) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation: 
Uranium is presently being used in nuclear reactors. But, IAEA, a UN nuclear agency says that thorium has many benefits when compared to uranium. 
Advantages of Thorium over Uranium:
With the usage of thorium, limited amount of radioactive debris is obtained. 
When compared to uranium, thorium is stable and resistant which means more safe.
The energy obtained from thorium is more than that of uranium and hence considered as cheap source.
With thorium used nuclear reactors, it is difficult to acquire nuclear weapons which is a big drawback of uranium nuclear reactors.
Kakrapar-1 and Kakrapar-2 are the two thorium nuclear plants in India. India’s interest in thorium is not only due to its environmental effects but also due to the existence of Thorium reserves in India (30% of world's reserves).

11.  Correct option is (d) Infrared part of solar radiation
Explanation: 
Generally, the earth absorbs the solar radiation, gets heated up and emits infrared radiation.
Carbon dioxide in atmosphere has special feature: It allows solar radiation to reach earth but is opaque to infrared radiation which means that it absorbs infrared radiation. 
This makes the atmosphere much warmer than it should be.
This continuous warming up of earth’s atmosphere due to increased emissions of carbon dioxide leads to global warming. 

12. Correct option is (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
Explanation: 
All organisms are made of essential elements like carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, phosphorus, oxygen and sulphur. 
As carbon can easily make bonds, it can form a nice skeleton.
Hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen exhibits acid-base effects and help them to make bonds with carbon forming amino acids, lipids, fats and nucleobases which are primary for the formation of RNA and DNA. 
As sulphur contains many electrons, sulfates and sulfides help in catalyzing reactions. 
Phosphorus is important for metabolism and is usually found in molecule phosphate. These phosphate molecules (ATP) help in storing large amount of energy in chemical bonds. 

13. Correct option is (c) 3 & 4 only
Explanation: Bt (Bacillus Thuringiensis) is a variety of crop which is modified by inserting a new gene into the genome sequence of crop to increase productivity and make it pest-resistant. But, people are resisting Bt-Brinjal (first Bt variety in food Items) it because of following reasons:
Considerable risks on public health as the technology is not tested.
The genetically modified organisms may become unregulated and uncontrolled.
Bt Brinjal may contaminate with the natural varieties of brinjal and could destroy many indigenous varieties of brinjal.
Loss of biodiversity and seed sovereignty.
Consumption of Bt Brinjal may lead to reproductive disorders, inflammation and liver damage. 
Lowers function of immune system due to the reduction in the number of white blood cells.
Aspartate aminotransferase levels reduce indicating damage of heart or liver.  
The weight of ovary is observed to be decreased by 50 percent with the intake of Bt Brinjal.

14. Correct option is (c) 1, 2 & 4 Only
Explanation: Genetically engineered crops are introduced 30 years back and are under serious discussion now because of its advantages and disadvantages.
Advantages of genetically modified crops:
These crops can ward off fungi or virus. 
The seed is expensive but reduces the production costs by reducing inputs of fuel, machinery and chemical pesticides. 
GM crops yields better because of effective pest control.
Reduction in spraying pesticides controls run off in farms.
The loss of topsoil is reduced due to the reduction in mechanical weeding.
As pesticide exposure gets reduces, the health effects caused due to increased pesticides are reduced.
These crops can also withstand in drought conditions.
The nutritional value of the crop increases along with the shelf life so that the loss of crop produce can be reduced.

15. Correct option is (a) 1 Only
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji is given the title “Grand Old Man of India”
Founded East India Association in London to put indian views before the people of Britain.
Started “voice of India” newspaper.
He did an excellent work in the assessment of India’s national income.
He listened the grievances of Indian public and proclaimed their ideals, aims and aspirations to the world.
Founded parsi law association and a great social reformer mainly in bombay.
He voiced the economic exploitation being done by the british in India through “drain of wealth” concept.

16. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 Only
Explanation: 
Dhrupad:
It belongs to the genre of Hindustani classical music with carnatic tradition.
Dhruva, which means “permanent” is discussed in Natyashastra, an ancient Hindu sanskrit text. 
Features- thoughtful, heroic, spiritual, moral wisdom and virtuous.
Consists of four stanzas- antara, sthayi, abhoga and sancari. 
They are generally related to bhakti but sometimes sung to praise kings.
Haridas, a singer who sings songs on krishna is a dhrupad singer.
The songs are sung with set of syllables derived from mantra. 

17. Correct option is (a) only 1
Explanation:


Kuchipudi
Bharatanatyam
Originated in Andhra Pradesh
Originated in TamilNadu
Inspired from sculptures of chidambaram temple
Originated from the contributions and creations of brahmin dancers. 
Features: dazzling, flat-footed, brisk and curved with round poses.
Elegant, soft, graceful and sculptured poses
Movements include jatiswaram and tillana which reflect the omnipotent god.
Dance movements reflect the movements of flame of dance.
Attire: consists of single fan and longer than the lengthiest fan in bharatanatyam dress.
Consists of three fans of various heights to make an impression of a saree.


18. Correct option is (c) 3 only
Explanation: 
Sufi men are highly moral and their principles are according to the time. 
To purify their hearts, sufi mystics follow these practices- giving away alms, offering ritual prayers, observation of silence, spending on charity and solitude and fast.
They realise truth only through self-experience. 
Begging to crush their ego.
They follow simple life and recites holy songs to arouse ecstasy in audience.

19. Correct option is (b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
Explanation: 
Rowlatt Act:
It is passed by Imperial legislative council, part of legislature of British India in February 1919. 
The act aimed at trying certain political cases without jury and the suspects are interned without any trial. 
The intention was to replace some provisions of Defence of India Act (1915) by a law (permanent).
This act was resented by Indian Public at large extent.
A non cooperation movement was organised by Mahatma gandhi to oppose Massacre of Amritsar and Rowlatt act.
The act was implemented never by the british government. 

20. Correct option is (a) 1 only
Explanation: 
Until 1929, some leaders were seriously fighting for dominion status which can be witnessed in the Nehru Report (1928).
But, some other leaders wanted complete independence and hence congress was divided in their opinions.
The recommendations of nehru report were not accepted by the british and the congress was clear to raise their voices for complete independence in Lahore Session of Congress. This session was presided by Jawaharlal Nehru.
In that session, poorna swaraj resolution was adopted which demanded for complete independence.
As the deadline of nehru report lapsed on midnight of april 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted flag on Ravi river at lahore. 
Hence, the committee decided to celebrate january 26th, 1930 as “poorna swaraj day” and pledge was drafted by Mahatma Gandhi.
This is the reason why we celebrate republic day on January 26th even though the drafting of constitution was completely on november 26th.
21. Correct option is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: 
ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activists):
ASHA is a social health worker and is instituted by ministry of Health and Family welfare with reference to National Rural Health Mission. 
ASHAs are common women who are given training to act as health promoters and educators in their own communities. 
Roles and Responsibilities:
Motivates pregnant woman to get delivery in institutions only.
Encourage children to get immunized in clinics.
Encourages family planning through surgical sterilization.
Maintains demographic records.
Improves the sanitation in villages.
Treat normal illness and give First aid for injury.
Acts as communication link between rural population and healthcare system.

22. Correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:  
Government of India Act 1919:
Objective is to introduce responsible government in India.
Also called Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
Separates provincial and central subjects.
Provincial subjects are divided into reserved and transferred parts.
Dyarchy was introduced  which means double-rule.
Bicameral legislature replaces legislative council.
Separate electorates for Indian christians, sikhs, Europeans and anglo-Indians.
Public service commission was established.
Central service commission was also established to recruit civil services.

23. Correct option is (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
Explanation: 
Indian Social Conference:
Founded by raghunath Rao and M.G.Ranade and is a social reform cell of congress party. 
First session was held in December 1887 at madras.
It met on the same session day of congress but focused mainly on social reforms.
It opposed polygamy, kulinism and supported intercaste marriages.
In order to prohibit child marriages, it launched “pledge movement” to inspire people regarding prohibition.

24. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar:
Representative of depressed classes.
In 1936, Independent Labour Party (ILP) was formed. This party contested in provincial elections of bombay. Later in 1942, Ambedkar transformed it as All India Scheduled Caste Federation. It was further renamed as Republic Part of India after Ambedkar’s death in 1957.
He rejected constituent assembly idea due to the fear of domination of supreme caste hindus.
He was appointed as member of executive council of viceroy as a representative of labour.

25. Correct option is (a) Only 1 is correct
Explanation: 
Wetlands:
Wetland is an area which is covered with water. Some of the examples are delta of river, ponds, marshes, edge of ocean/lake and flood areas.
An international convention named “ramsar convention” is intended to conserve usage of wetlands.
India has around 23 wetlands recognised under ramsar convention. 
When gujarat and other states are compared, the former stood first with an area of 12,70,875 hectares in the total area of wetlands. 
While coastal wetlands cover mangroves, beaches, shorelines and coral reefs, inland wetlands cover ponds, lakes, swamps and marshes, estuaries.

26. Correct option is (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Rain fed agriculture is a type of agriculture which depends entirely on rain water for cultivation of crops.
The net area sown under rainfed conditions is 60% out of which food crops occupy 48 percent and the remaining 68 percent is occupied by non-food crops.
India has the largest area under rainfed agriculture in the world.
Some of the rainfed crops in India are Sorghum, cotton, maize, sesamum, pearl millet, finger millet and groundnut.
Among them groundnut occupies 80 percent of area cultivated under rainfall.


27. Correct option is (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Himalayas are the youngest folded mountains that are continuously rising due to tectonic forces.
Features of himalayas as folded mountains are: deep gorges, rock structures, high mountain peaks. 
Himalayas at high altitudes are differentially uplifted and hence rivers have steep gradients.
These high himalayas have narrow and long arc and are uplifted during quaternary.
As himalayas have parallel ridges, they are called fold mountains.

28. Correct option is (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The solar radiation is absorbed by the earth faster than air and hence earth gets evenly heated up. 
As earth is heated, the air gets warmer and rises from the surface to the air. This means that the air near the surface is warmer than the air in upper atmosphere.
When the temperatures are averaged, the troposphere recorded an average decrease in temperature from lower to upper atmosphere.
But this doesn’t mean that the same trend is followed in the entire atmosphere because temperature increases with altitude in stratosphere due to ozone hole radiations.
The rate at which temperature decreases with altitude is called lapse rate.

29. Correct option is (a) 1, 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Ocean acidification is a process of ocean becoming acidic due to the formation of hydronium and bicarbonate ions.
In general, ocean is basic (pH>7). But, the carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere by human activities in reacting with ocean water to form carbon acid. This acid further reacts with water molecules to form hydronium and bicarbonate ions thereby increasing acidity. 
Effects of Ocean acidification:
Various flora and fauna species of oceans are seriously affected.
Seagrasses and photosynthetic algae are multiplied in more numbers leading to death of many underwater plants and animals.
All calcifying species like clams, oysters, shallow water corals, sea urchins, calcareous plankton and deep sea corals are affected.

30. Correct option is (c) 2 & 3 only
Explanation: 
CAG is a constitutional authority and is established under article 148.
It is responsible for auditing all the expenditures and receipts of state and central governments and authorities financed by the government.
All the government-owned corporations are also audited by CAG.
The reports of CAG are considered by committees on public undertakings and public accounts committee.
CAG is generally recognised as “friend, philosopher and guide” of the financial committees of parliament. 
The reports submitted by ministries are scrutinised by CAG and checks the correctness of figures and facts.
In some cases, investigating agencies can consider these reports to file case on concerned candidate.

31. Correct option is (b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
Explanation: 
The buddha posture and gestures depicts a lot about buddhist’s life; one of the popular and common mudra is “Bhumisparsha mudra”.
This mudra can be literally translated as “earth touching gesture”. 
The buddha in this gesture can be seen with his right hand on his right knee pointed towards the ground and left hand is placed on his lap with palm upright. 
The gesture represents that Buddha claims earth as witness of his enlightenment. 
Just before he got enlightened, the demon mara tried to bring buddha out of meditation by tempting him with demon’s daughters.

32. Correct option is (c) Worship of Nature and Yajnas
Explanation:
Vedic literature consists of four vedas- rig veda, yajur veda, sama veda and atharva veda.
Rig veda consists of hymns to worship gods like indra, rivers and fire. This implies that early aryans followed worshipping of nature.
The reason behind their worship is due to the fact that they believe some divine power behind these natural forces. 
Early vedic aryans worshipped many gods (male and female)- Indra, varuna, mitra, rudra, agni, vayu, parjanya, yama and marutas.    
Their mode of worshipping these gods is through yajnas as indicated by the vedic literature.
However, bhakti is also their mode of worship but in later aryan period. 

33. Correct option is (b) 1 & 2 Only
Explanation: Brahmo samaj is a social reform movement started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Doctrine:
No faith in scriptures and avatars (idols).
Denounced idol-worship and polytheism.
Opposed caste restrictions.
Faith in doctrines of rebirth and karma. However, this faith is made optional to the followers.
Supported widow remarriages.
Opposed dowry system, caste system and emancipation of women. 

34. Correct option is (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: RBI was established in 1935 under RBI act, 1934. RBI acts as banker for all the other banks in India. This is implied by following statements:
lends funds to banks when they are in need and charges interest rates on them.
Banks maintain their accounts with RBI and maintains all the transaction balances.
RBI lends funds to banks when they have no other chance of getting money and hence considered as lender of last resort.
RBI also lends short term credit to the government.
RBI formulates monetary policy to control inflation using interest rates.

35. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation: 
Capital gains is an increase in the capital asset value which shows the value higher than the purchase price. Capital gain is realised only after selling the asset. It may be long term or short term. 
Capital gain is generally calculated on shares and stocks or any security.
Any increase in the value of paintings, stamps, metals, coins, precious gems, alcoholic beverages, rare rugs, fine art and antiques come under capital gains. 
36. Correct option is (c) 1 & 3
Explanation: 
The circulation of money in the economy is controlled by central bank and the government.
The measures used to control circulation of money vary depending on the economic conditions.
The circulation of money can be increased by following actions:
Lowering interest rates 
Quantitative easing
Purchase of government securities by RBI
Government spending more on schemes.

37. Correct option is (d) 1, 2 & 3 only
Explanation: 
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an investment option chosen by a business of another country to gain control over the purchase of a company.
This control may be directly by establishing a new company or subsidiary of foreign company or by investing some money to control management.
Sometimes, companies may think that investing money on securities is easy and brings more profits which is called portfolio investment. 

38. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation: 
The value of currency of any country is determined by both internal and external factors of a country. 
The prices of commodity play a major role in determining demand supply factors which further determine the value of exports and imports of a country. 
This is because imports and exports determine the power of economy of a country which in turn determine the investments people make.
The value of currency also depends on the decisions taken by the government to stabilise the economy taking in consideration inflation and other factors.
World bank is a source of technical and financial assistance provided by an organisation all around the world and it has nothing to be related with price of currency in international market.

39. Correct option is (c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
Explanation: 
To bridge the structural and spatial credit gaps, all India rural credit review committee recommended an area approach in 1969 naming it as lead bank scheme.
This lead bank scheme is aimed at an area approach for focused and targeted banking. This is done by adopting certain rural districts for the development through easy credits.
The committee headed by S. Nariman said that districts are to be identified as units and each district is allotted to a bank which acts as lead bank.
Some of the objectives of lead bank scheme are:
Eradication of underemployment and unemployment
Uplifting the poorest of the poor by rising their standard of living
Providing some basic needs to these poor people

40. Correct option is (d) None
Explanation: 
Raja Todarmal, a revenue minister in Akbar’s court introduced land reforms and assessed land revenue based on the quality of crops, the nature of soil and the extent of cultivation. 
Mughal empire is known for its military administration and the vast variety of arms used in wars. The weapons used are swords, bows, cannons (world’s largest), Flintlock blunderbuss and muskets. The weapons are evolved particularly during the periods of akbar, babur, Tipu sultan and aurangzeb.
Chillies are used mch before the advent of agriculture as chilli is known in peru since prehistoric times. In south India, chillies are introduced by Portuguese in 16th century and later spread to entire India.
Tobacco is also introduced by Portuguese during the period of akbar while jahangir banned the use of tobacco.

41. Correct option is (d) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation: 
Shreni or guild is an association of professionals (artisans and merchants).
Manu and Gautama recognised the rights of cultivators, traders, artisan and horseman etc to frame their own rules for association. However, these rules may be used by the kings in giving judgements. 
The formation of guilds started in 6th century B.C and became an important factor in production. Guilds increased demands for certain commodities and raised outputs by employing more slaves and labour. 
Guilds determine the quality of the product, price of the product and the rules of work to safeguard both customer and artisan. 
Guilds participated in local, national and international trade (manigramam and ayyaval are the two foreign trade guilds).
Kings also provided certain judicial powers to guilds over its own members in the association.

42. Correct option is (c) Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation:
Government of India Act, 1935:
Provided responsible government in India.
Divided powers between states and centres in terms of three lists- provincial (provinces), federal (centres) and concurrent list.
Provincial autonomy was introduced and dyarchy was abolished.
Dyarchy was proposed to be adopted at centre.
Bicameralism in six (out of 11) provinces.
Separate electorates for depressed classes (women and labour, scheduled castes).
Established RBI to control the credit and currency of the country.
Federal court was setup in 1937
Joint public service commission was established for more than two states.

43. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Coal is the backbone of India’s economic growth and development.
India is the third largest importer and producer of coal in the world while it has fifth largest reserves.
But, the issue of India is the gap between demand and the domestic supply of coal. Hence, India is importing coal.
Almost all the power plants in India are being run with coal and India has not enough coal which is why it is depending on imports.
It is also cheap to import energy efficient coal than buying the same quality coal from coal India.
Coking coal is an important raw material for steel industries and India has no such reserves. Hence, India is importing coking coal mainly from Australia. 

44. Correct option is (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
Explanation: 
Pole star is the star which sits directly in the direction of spin axis from northern hemisphere of the earth. It is also called as polaris. 
It is present directly above the north pole or south pole. Anyone can point polaris in night as it is found in north. 
This direction strategy can be used for navigation of ships  and the latitude can also be determined. 
If one faces polaris and stretch arms, then the right hand points towards east and left hand towards west. 
Hence, in desert, if one finds pole star, then he/she might travel by keeping the star on his left to reach house in east.

45. Correct option is (c) 1 & 3 only
Explanation: 
As defined by IUPAC, rare earth elements are seventeen elements in the periodic table.
These rare earth metals are being used exclusively used in every electronic gadget.
China has vast reserves (97% of world’s reserves) of these rare earth elements and it held back its precious supply by blocking export to japan, US and Europe in 2010.
The reserves of these elements are not limited to chile, australia, china and canada but found in california, south africa and greenland. 
However, China lifted its blockage of exports now and is exporting rare earth metals to others also.

46. Correct option is (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Biomass gasification is a process of converting biomass into combustible gas mixture, not allowing for complete combustion. To ensure partial combustion, air supply is restricted to a value less than theoretical value.
Biomass resources that can be generally used as inputs are coconut shells, groundnut shells, rice husk, wood chips, cotton stalks, arhar stalks and other agricultural residues in rural areas.
The combustible gas obtained from this process is 100% producer gas 
The main aim of Biomass gasifier is to meet the energy needs of rice mills and other industries which needs replacement of diesel, coal, furnace oil etc. The energy produced from this process also helps in meeting the demands of lighting in villages. 
Hence, the biogas (producer gas) generated from this process can be used for generating heat directly rather than using for internal combustion in engines.

47. Correct option is (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Ultraviolet water purification is a process of killing bacteria in water. UV rays help in destroying microorganisms by attacking their DNA. This reduces their ability to reproduce.
Disinfecting water through this process is environmentally safe, effective and simple. 
No chemicals are added to destroy microorganisms
This process doesn’t change water’s odor or taste as no chemicals are added.
UV water purification systems are paired with Reverse Osmosis systems to provide safe drinking water.

48. Correct option is (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
Graphene is a two-dimensional arrangement of carbon atoms which was discovered by Konstantin Novoselov and Andre Geim for which they got Nobel prizes in Physics. 
It is highly different from Graphite, which is a three-dimensional arrangement of carbon. 
Graphene is a two-dimensional material with best electrical conductivity. Generally, metals have good electrical conductivity, but Graphene is based on carbon which is a non-metal. Yet, Graphene has best electrical conductivity as electricity quickly flows through the honeycomb sheet.
It can conduct so much electricity in a small space which makes it the best material to make very small devices. 
Graphene is strong, flexible and transparent also.
It is a best conductor at room temperature.
It is lightest and thinnest material known 
Applications: collection of radioactive waste, ultra-thin touchscreens, supercapacitors, ultra-fast charging of batteries, bendable batteries, purification of salt water, lighter and stronger aircraft and armor, quick and efficient biosensor devices, faster flash memory etc.

49. Correct option is (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Lead is released into environment through various routes such as processing lead-acid batteries, metal recycling, producing lead wires or pipes,lead smelters etc. 
One can expose to lead if lead comes into contact with household dust, air, water, soil and commercial products. Leaded gasoline and mining are also the culprits in lead pollution.
People working in industries that produce a lot of lead-contaminating products like ammunition, radiation shields, developing dental x-ray films, plumbing, certain surgical equipment, fetal monitors, jet engines, circuit boards and ceramic glazes are found to be exposed to lead in alarming levels.
Other workers who are highly exposed to lead are auto mechanics, plastic manufacturers, firing range instructors, construction workers, plumbers and filters, lead miners and smelters, glass manufacturers etc.
Lead may also present in food which is grown in soil that contains high percentage of lead.
Lead is widely used in paints as some lead compounds are colorful. When lead paint deteriorates, it mixes with household dust causing chronic lead poisoning. 
A serious concern was raised about chinese toys regarding lead poisoning.
Hunting animals with lead bullets is also considered as a risk of lead exposure.

50. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Stem cells are specialised biological cells which have the capacity of division through mitosis process. 
Stem cells are present in multicellular organisms and not only in mammals.
Sources of adult stem cells in humans: Adipose tissue, Bone marrow and Blood.
They can also be taken from umbilical cord blood soon after birth.
Adult stem cells can be used in various medical therapies like bone marrow transplantation.
Stem cells can be made to perform many functions by instructing them to specialise.
Possible applications of stem cell research are organ and tissue regeneration, brain disease treatment, cardiovascular disease treatment, blood disease treatment, cell deficiency treatment etc.
Stem cells can also be used in screening new drugs.

51. Correct option is (c) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Chlorofluorocarbons are the halogenated hydrocarbons that contain derivatives of chlorine, carbon and fluorine (ethane, methane and propane). They are also called as freons.
CFCs are mainly used as coolants and refrigerants, blowing agents, solvents and propellants for aerosol cans.
CFCs are being used widely due to their low reactivity, toxicity and flammability.
They are used in cans to provide spraying effect
The other common uses are spray paint, hair spray and cooking spray

52. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Antimatter is a material composed of antiparticles to the corresponding particles of the matter.
Antimatter is the counterpart of the electron.
Every particle has an antimatter particle with opposite charge
If a kilogram of matter is annihilated with the same amount of antimatter, a huge amount of energy is released.
Hence, antimatter is considered as a source of fuel and a possible future weapon. But, it takes a lot of time to produce (It takes 100 billion years to make a gram of antimatter).
Important uses:
Diagnosing and treating cancer using a technique similar to ion therapy
Tumours can be destroyed without affecting the adjacent tissues
The creation of antimatter makes it easy to study the evolution of the Universe along with the existence of galaxies and stars made of antimatter.

53. Correct option is (a) 1 and 2
Explanation:
To know about the expansion rate of Universe, scientists look at magnitude-red shift phenomena using standard rules.
The first evidence for the acceleration is the explosion of white dwarfs (caused by Type La Supernovae) which have exceeded their stability limit.
Some areas of the sky are repeatedly captured in images to discover the supernovae. The spectral lines of the light emitted by this used to determine the redshift.
Baryon acoustic oscillations also acts as evidence for the expansion of the Universe.

54. Correct option is (a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
Explanation:
Sun continuously emits a flux of electrically charged particles into the space. This is called Solar wind.
Earth’s magnetic field prevents these particles from reaching the surface of Earth.
These particles are moved to the poles and then reach upper atmosphere to form Auroras. 
As moon is out of the reach of Earth’s magnetic field, these particles reach the surface of moon.
Solar wind composition experiment  and solar wind spectrometer are the two experiments that help in analysing this phenomenon.

55. Correct option is (c) 1, 3 & 4 only
Explanation:
In Ancient India, Sushruta was found to be the first surgeon and used S and U type surgical tools and also documented plastic surgery. Sushruta most probably belonged to BC which is prior to 1st century AD. Hence, the first statement is correct.
As Sushruta mentioned plastic surgery of nose (flaps of skin were used in other parts), there are no evidences of any internal transplantation of organs. Hence, second statement in wrong.
Aryabhatta’s Surya Siddhanta explained sine and the versed sine tables that are familiar to the Mathematics students. This text most probably belonged to 5th century AD.
Brahmagupta gave the formula     of the area of cyclic quadrilateral. Brahmagupta belonged to the time period of 598-670 AD. Hence, the knowledge of this area was known before 7th century AD. 

56. Correct option is (b) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Both Buddhism and Jainism are not aimed to get started as religions as the preachers tried to preach the people rather than forcing them to join religion.
Though both the religions differ in many principles, they have many similarities.
Some of the similarities of Buddhism and Jainism are:
Denied the authenticity of Vedas.
Denied the existence of God and other heavenly fathers
Accepted Dharma and believed that enlightenment can be achieved by self discipline.
Emphasis on self improvement, meditation, nonviolence and compassion to achieve inner peace.
Denial of any type of rituals

57. Correct option is (c) 2, 3 & 4 only
Explanation:
Governance is the process of decision-making that makes more people involved. Inclusive governance is a term that focuses more on the involvement of citizens to make implementations easier.
District is considered as an important unit of planning in all central schemes. Government tried to structure the programs to strengthen decentralised management through some local institutions. 
For example, National Rural Health Mission and Sarva Siksha Abhiyan uses district level plans to implement the programmes. Hence, statement 2 is true.
If government spends more on public health, it leads to more involvement from citizens to improve the public health status. 
Another flagship programme Mid-day meal programme is the best example of inclusive governance.

58. Correct option is (C) three main styles of Indian temple architecture.
Explanation:
Shilpa Sutras, ancient architectural texts referred to three types of temple architecture: Nagara, Dravida and Vesara styles.
Nagara style: Land between Vindhyas and Himalayas
Dravida: Land between Kaveri and Krishna rivers
Vesara: Area between Krishna river and Vindhyas.

Nagara
Dravida
Vesara
Origin: structural temples of Gupta period
Temples of Southern India or Deccan
Emerged during early medieval period
Characteristics: no pillars, Shikara in convex curve etc.
Pyramidal elevation of tower, immense gopurams, pillared corridors and halls
Combination of both Nagara and Dravidian styles
Examples: Lingaraja temple
Example: Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi
Most of the temples are in Belur, Halebid and Somanathapura

59. Correct option is (d)  None of the statements (a), (b) and (e) given above is correct
Explanation:
Provincial elections were conducted in 1936-37 in British India according to the Government of India Act, 1935. 
In the eleven provinces in which elections were conducted, Indian Congress won in seven provinces. Muslim League failed to form government in any of the provinces.
The Congress had to form its government as per the results announced in 1937. 
But, during the same time, Lord Linlithgow, the then Viceroy announced that India would be a belligerent in the 2nd world war without the consultation of Indian people.
Hence, Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces to protest this decision of Lord Linlithgow. 

60. Correct option is (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
Explanation:
Special Powers to Rajya Sabha:
Rajya Sabha has special powers in terms of proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is in dissolved state. Rajya Sabha can approve the proclamation and will be in effect for 30 days after the reconstitution of Lok Sabha.
As per Article 249, Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution supported by a minimum of two-third majority (present and voting) to make law on any state subject in the national interest.
A new All India Service can be set up with the resolution passed by two-thirds majority in Rajya Sabha.
Any law with the above said provisions can be initiated only if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution. 
Lok Sabha comes into picture only if Rajya Sabha passes the bill.

61. Correct option is (B) 2 only
Explanation: 
NRLM:
National Rural Livelihood Mission was launched by Ministry of Rural Development in June 2011. 
The main aim of this mission is to promote self-employment and organisee the rural poor. 
The basic idea behind this programme is to organise the rural poor to form self-help groups making them capable of self-employment.
This program is said to be the World’s largest initiatives to improve the living conditions of rural poor.
It gets funds from World Bank.
The programme aimed at bringing at least one woman from each house under the Self-help group network.
Additional focus is laid out on certain communities like victims of human trafficking, manual scavengers, persons with disabilities, vulnerable tribal groups and bonded labour.
This is now being called as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana.

62. Correct option is (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed by Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative in 2010 with the support from UNDP (United Nations Development Programme). 
This index considers different factors to determine poverty levels.
MPI measures acute poverty in around 100 developing countries.
Unlike many other measures that considers traditional income-based poverty measures, this index considers several deprivations that a person faces with respect to health, education and living standards.
The ten indicators used for measuring MPI are: Years of schooling, Child school attendance, Nutrition, Child mortality, Sanitation, Electricity, Floor, Drinking water, cooking fuel and assets ownership.
63. Correct option is (c) 1 & 3 only
Explanation:
Recommendations of 13th Finance Commission:
States to get 32 percent of share in central taxes every year.
Centre to impose a ceiling of 39.5 percent on the transfer of Gross Revenue receipts of the centre to states.
State governments will get general and special performance grants only if they comply with the concerned stipulation in terms of local bodies’ grants.
State governments should lay down the guidelines for the establishment of nagar panchayats.
An elaborate design ws given for the implementation of GST with a  ‘Grand Bargain’ between Centre and states.

64. Correct option is (d) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Policy Initiatives:
The National Manufacturing Policy was aimed to boost the share of the country in Industrial production, employment, investments and development of world-class infrastructure. 
Establishment of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZ) 
Flexible labour laws
Incentives for Green Manufacturing
Relaxations in environmental regulations
Single window clearance
Skill development and Industrial training programmes
Tax and financial incentives to small and medium enterprises.

65. Correct option is (a) 1, 2, 3 & 5 only
Explanation:
Parliamentary Control over Public Finance in India:
Collection of Revenue and expenditure of various funds are controlled by parliament and regulated by constitutional provisions. 
Executive can withdraw funds from Consolidated and Contingency funds of India only after the approval from Parliament.
Comptroller and Auditor General is responsible to ensure that all the government sanctions are incurred only with the approval from parliament.
Public Account Committee is another institution through which government’s financial operations are controlled by parliament.

66. Correct option is (C) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
Explanation:
In 1932, Gandhiji undertook hunger strike at Yerwada Jail near Bombay to protest against the decision of British government to give caste based electorates.
On August 17, 1932, Communal Award was announced by Ramsay MacDonald reserving seats for Sikhs, Muslims and depressed classes.
Gandhiji viewed this communal award to segregate Indians on the basis of caste. The British government wanted to segregate the untouchables so that social classes would be divided.
As Gandhiji took fast to oppose this, British government accepted an alternate proposal after six days which made Gandhi to break his fast. 


67. Correct option is (C) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Ryotwari Settlement:
Initially, Ryotwari settlement was initiated by Sher Shah Suri. 
In the territories of East India company, Ryotwari system was introduced by Captain Reed and Thomas Munroe first in Madras presidency. 
In this system, direct payments (55% of produce) were made by the peasants to the government. Peasants were given proprietorship and ownership.
But there were some faults in the calculation of revenue which increased the rate of revenue making agriculture unprofitable.
As peasants were owners, they were given pattas by the government.
The government itself surveyed lands and assessed them to estimate the tax to be paid.

68. Correct option is (C) 2 3 1
Explanation:
Demographic transition discusses the changes in birth and death rates which are related to the process of growth and development.
These changes are found to occur in different stages which is called demographic cycle. These four stages are related to the economic development of any country.
First stage: High Birth rate with high death rate because people tend to give birth to more as deaths are more due to variable food supply and epidemics. Due to low levels of technology, life expectancy is low and people are illiterate.
Second stage: High Birth rate and Low Death rate. The death rate falls rapidly due to better health facilities and nutritious food. Also, Birth rate remains high due to poor awareness of people and limited access to contraceptives. 
Third stage: Declining birth rate and low death rate. Birth rate begins to fall as people think big families as liability. Death rate continues to be low and hence population growth declines. India is now passing through this stage.
Fourth Stage: Low birth rate and low death rate because of population stabilisation. The standard of living becomes very high due to rapid economic development. Emphasis is given on the quality of life rather than the size of family.

69. Correct option is (C) 1, 2, 3 & 4 only
Explanation:
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index that gives out the details of growth in eight core industries. 
This index measures the short term changes in the basket of industrial products.
It is compiled and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) once in a month.
The eight core industries comprise around 40 percent of the weight of all products in the basket of IIP. 
The eight core industries are:
Electricity
Crude oil
Steel
Coal
Refinery products
Fertilisers
Natural Gas
Cement

70. Correct option is (C) 1, 2 & 5 only
Explanation:
DPSP: Article 41 says that it is the responsibility of state to make provisions for securing right to work, education etc. Article 45 says that state shall endeavour to provide education for all children below fourteen years of age upto ten years from the commencement of constitution.
Rural and Urban Bodies: Article 350A says that every state and local authority should strive to provide necessary facilities to teach in mother tongue at primary stage of education.
The basic aim of fifth and sixth schedules of the constitution is to protect the cultural distinctiveness of tribals. 
The sixth schedule is mainly related to the administration of Meghalaya, Assam, Mizoram and Tripura in the North-East.
Seventh schedule divides the powers and subjects between centre and states. In the state list, Education including medical education, technical education and universities is listed in 25th number.

71. Correct option is (C) 1 & 3 only
Explanation:
Sea Buckthorn is famous for its healing properties and many other characteristics which is why its cultivation is being encouraged by the government.
In China, this shrub is used for water and soil conservation along with its healing properties.
It has many medicinal properties like lowering blood pressure, cardiovascular benefits, improves sight and soothes skin, acts as antioxidant and expectorant. 
This plan is extensively found in Himalayan region and also helps in fixing nitrogen in desert and cold areas.
While it is a shrub, it has no timber and hence statement 4 is wrong.

72. Correct option is (C) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
Explanation:
Mixed farming is a type of cultivation which involved both livestock and crops.
However, mixed cultivation is the cultivation of two or more crops in the same land.
Mixed farming is generally practised in urbanised, densely populated and industrialized societies.
In general, agricultural returns from mixed farming are high because of excellent transport systems, efficient methods of farming, rein ability of precipitation and proximity of urban markets. 
The most important crop in the mixed farming system is ‘grass’ which occupies at least 20% of the cultivable land. 
Mixed farms are characterised by extensive use of fertilizers, manures, machinery and farm buildings.

73. Correct option is (A) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh, a land of rising sun lies in North-East India and is located in the same latitude of Northern Rajasthan.
According to the Indian Forests Report 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has 61.55% of geographical area as recorded forest area.
This state consists of 11.68% area of the state as protected area.
The total forest cover in the state is 68,019S Square Km which is around 81.22 % of its total area. 

 

74. Correct option is (D) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Green manure crops are mainly grown to cover the surface with vegetative cover especially in hill slopes so that runoff and soil erosion can be avoided during winter season. 
Pulses or legumes are generally grown to use them as green fodder for cattle in initial stages and then as green manure.
Cow Pea, Pigeon Pea and Green Gram are leguminous crops (pulses) which have the capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of Nitrogen Fixation.
Mung Bean or Green Gram is also used as green manure and also acts as an excellent green fodder to the animals.
Cow Pea is a green manure that builds organic matter, weeds, smothers and controls nematodes. 

75. Correct option is (B) 1, 2, 3
Explanation:
Ocean current is a movement of water in a defined direction over long distances.
Ocean currents are generated mainly by wind. The patterns of these currents are determined by coriolis force from Earth’s rotation, wind direction and the position of landforms. 
Ocean currents are also generated by density differences in water masses which are caused by salinity variations and temperature differences. 
Ocean currents become strong when they move from broader space to narrow space. 
Factors influencing ocean currents: gravitational force, precipitation, atmospheric pressure, insolation, evaporation, winds, temperature difference, pressure gradient, density, salinity and melting of ice.


76. Correct option is (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Tiger reserves are governed by the Project Tiger which is being administered by National Tiger Conservation Authority.
In the entire World, India has around 70% of Tiger population. 
To increase Tiger population, Project Tiger was launched by GOI in 1973. 
As of now, there are 50 tiger reserves in India.
According to the options, the tiger reserves are Bandipur (Karnataka), Manas (Assam), Sunderbans (West Bengal). 
Some other important tiger reserves are Kanha (MP), Simlipal (Odisha), Periyar (Kerala), Pench (MP), Kaziranga (Assam), Nagarahole (Karnataka), Kawal (Telangana), Rajaji (Uttarakhand), Orang (Assam) etc.  

77. Correct option is (C) Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
The distribution of Southwest monsoons is varied from East to West and South to North.
From East to West, SW monsoons follows a declining trend in Northern India and from South to North due to three factors:
As the distance from sea increases, the amount of rainfall also decreases which is called continental effect.
Aravali mountains run parallel to the SW monsoon (Arabian branch) and hence there will be less amount of rainfall.
By the time monsoon reaches NW region, ITCZ starts shifting and high pressure is developed over NW making the monsoon to retreat (NE monsoon).

78. Correct option is (D) A definite dry and wet season
Explanation:
Tropical Savanna climate is a tropical wet and dry climate and has a monthly mean temperatures above 18 degrees. 
Wet summer seasons may last for 6-8 months and leads to plenty of rainfall.
Similarly, winter season may last for 4-6 months; there might not be any rains in this season leading to dry season.
Hence, winter season is the dry season leading to frequent forest fires.
Most of the annual rainfall is obtained during summer season (wet season) and less amount of rainfall is recorded in dry season (winters).
These climates are mainly found in Asia, Africa and Northern South America. 

79. Correct option is (B) National Parks
Explanation:
India has many kinds of protected areas as designated by IUCN: National parks, sanctuaries, reserved and protected forests, biosphere reserves, conservation areas, private protected areas, conservation areas and community reserves.
National parks’ main aim is to protect functioning ecosystems and surrounding areas may be allowed for consumptive or non-consumptive use.
Biosphere reserves are the sites that are established under MAB programme (Man and the Biosphere) to promote sustainable development based on sound science and local community efforts.
Wildlife sanctuary is a natural one that provides protection of various species from predation, hunting or competition. 
Except National parks, all the other protected areas allow local people to collect and use the biomass.
80. Correct option is (D) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Pollinator is an agent that transfers anther to stigma of a flower causing fertilisation.
There are many pollinating agents: insects, birds, bees and other vertebrates.
Some of the insect pollinators include pollen wasps, bees, flies, ants, lepidopterans (Butterflies and moths) and flower beetles.
Vertebrates include birds, bats and some non-bat mammals like lemurs, monkeys, rodents etc. Some lizards also pollinate certain plants.
Some of the pollinating birds are honeyeaters, hummingbirds, sunbirds with long beaks.
Bats are the most important pollinators of tropical flowers.

81. Correct option is (A) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
Explanation:
IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) prepares Red Data List in which animals in threatened and endangered state are listed. 
There are seventeen mega diverse countries in the world out of which India is the one. These 17 megadiverse countries are habitats of 60 to 70 percent of World’s biodiversity. 
There are 34 biodiversity hotspots in the world out of which India has three: Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and Indo-Burma.
Some of the endangered wildlife species and the reasons of threat are: 
    
Endangered Species
Conservation Issues
Great Indian Bustard
Biggest threat is hunting and poaching. Other threats include habitat loss, mechanized farming etc.
Musk Deer
Poaching done for its pharmaceutical and cosmetic properties, excessive forest clearing or grazing etc
Red Panda
Habitat loss, fragmentation, physical threats, habitat degradation etc.
Asiatic Wild Ass
Illegal hunting for hides, meat and fat. Other threats include habitat loss, overgrazing, limited access to water resources etc.


    
82. Correct option is (B) 1, 3 & 4
Explanation:
Capillarity is the phenomenon of movement of water in narrow spaces even without an external forces like gravity. 
The phenomenon occurs due to cohesive (forces between molecules of same substance) and adhesive forces (forces between molecules of different substances).
Some of the examples of capillary action:
Plants can carry water from the soil to the top through capillary action. Evaporation is done at leaves creating depressurisation.
Ink flow from tube to the tip in a fountain pen.
Absorption of liquid by paper towels
Movement of groundwater from wet areas to dry areas.


83. Correct option is (C) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
Explanation:
Millenium Ecosystem Assessment (MEA) is an assessment of the impact of human on the environment and was launched in 2001.
This assessment introduced the term ‘Ecosystem Services’ which are the benefits that are gained by the humans from ecosystems.
These ecosystem services are categorised into five: supporting, provisioning, preserving, regulating and cultural services.
Provisioning services: food and water
Supporting services: nutrient cycling which maintains the conditions for the existence of life on the earth
Cultural services: recreational, spiritual and cultural benefits
Regulating services: flood and disease control

84. Correct option is (A) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
Explanation:

Antelope Oryx
Antelope Chiru
Native to arid parts of Africa
Native to the Tibetan Plateau
Poachers are capturing these animals to sell them in private Zoos.
Poached for their underwool
Habituated to live in semi-desert regions
Found mainly in Chinese regions while some are migrated to Ladakh in India

 

85. Correct option is (A) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Biodiversity determines the variety of species on Earth and ensures the natural sustainability for all beings on the planet.
But, this biodiversity is under threat from a number of issues from climate change to invasive species. 
Some of the major threats biodiversity is facing today are:
Climate Change
Deforestation and habitat loss
Overexploitation
Invasive species
Pollution

Threats
Underlying Causes
Climate Change (Global Warming)
Deforestation, carbon emissions and the changes in land use due to various human activities
Fragmentation of Habitat
Spread of road network, urbanised areas, industrial areas and associated problems
Invasion of alien species
International transport and trade, climate change, exotic pests released in the wild, exotic trees in forestry, gardening practices

86. Correct option is (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
India has a varied and rich biodiversity due to thick and dense forests available in various regions.
Some of the animals naturally found in India are: Indian Asiatic Lion, Bengal Tiger, Indian Clouded Leopard, Indian Leopard, Indian Snow Leopard, Indian Black Bear, Indian Blackbuck, Indian Deer, Indian Gazelle, Nilgai, Axis deer, Brow-antlered Deer, Hog Deer, Muntjac Deer, Musk Deer, Sambar Deer, Swamp Deer, Indian Camel, Indian Elephant, Golden Langur, Hanuman Langur, Lion Tailed Macaque, Long Tailed Macaque, Rhesus Macaque, Indian Red Panda, Indian Rhinoceros, Indian Striped Hyena, Indian Wild Ass, Indian Wild Boar, Black necked crane, Flying squirrel etc.

Animals
Places where they can be spotted
One-Horned Rhinoceros
Dudhwa tiger reserve, Kaziranga national park, pobitora wildlife sanctuary
Nilgiri Tahr
Nilgiri hills, Eravikulam national park, Periyar national park, Anamalai hills, Palni hills
Bengal Tiger
Jim Corbett national park, Sariska tiger reserve, Sundarbans national park, Ranthambore national park, Bandhavgarh national park, Tadoba national park
Asiatic Lion
Gir forest national park, Gujarat
Black Necked Crane
Western Arunachal Pradesh, Northern Sikkim
Flying Squirrel
Arunachal Pradesh, Rajasthan
Black Buck
Gir national park, Kanha national park, Bandhavgarh national park, Ranthambore national park, Bharatpur Bird sanctuary, Guindy national park, Corbett national park


87. Correct option is (C) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
The effects of climate-warming can be mitigated by managing the soil effectively to increase organic content so that carbon can be removed from the atmosphere.
Some agricultural practices are identified by the scientists which can help in carbon sequestration.
A number of soil-based and biological practices in integrated system has potential to sequester carbon.
Contour Bunding: It is a technique to conserve soil and water in rainfed areas. Contour bunds are constructed on slope to reduce soil erosion and to increase absorption of water. As soil erosion is reduced, the surface of soil is rich in nutrients and also results in high storage of carbon in the soil (carbon sequestration).
Relay cropping: In this technique, a new crop is sown before the existing one is harvested. This helps in providing nitrogen, support, shade and many discourage pests. The main benefit of this technique is soil conservation. It also helps in obtaining better yields and carbon sequestration also.
Zero Tillage: It is a process of growing crops year after year without making the disturbance to the soil through tillage. This technique is based on the soil conservation concept which helps in minimising the disturbances to the soil leading to more water retention, nutrients and topsoil. As soil organic matter is stored in the soil of crop fields, this technique supports carbon sequestration.

88. Correct option is (A) 1 & 2 only
Explanation:
Phytoplankton is a microalgae which contain chlorophyll and need sunlight to grow. These are present mostly on the surface of water or upto the death so that they can get enough sunlight. 
Phytoplankton provide food for various sea creatures like whales, snails, shrimps and jellyfish. When there are excess nutrients in the water, there will be overgrowth of phytoplankton forming algal blooms. 
These algal blooms are highly harmful to shellfish, birds, mammals, people etc as they produce toxic components.
Phytoplankton creates organic compounds from the dissolved carbon dioxide in water.
If phytoplankton is completely destroyed, then the amount of carbon dioxide in the water will be increased leading to the death of many aquatic organisms disturbing the entire food chain in the oceans. But, it has nothing to be related with density of the ocean water.

89. Correct option is (B) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
Explanation:
Vultures in India are becoming extinct due to the usage of Diclofenac, a banned drug illegally to treat cattle.
Diclofenac is being used by veterinarians and farmers to reduce pain in cattle.
This drug is particularly famous in India as older and dying cattle are not generally killed in India
When endangered birds eat the reminiscents of these drugged animals, they suffer from kidney failure and a visceral gout (a fatal disease).
Though Diclofenac was banned in 2006, pharmacies are still selling the drug.
According to a study, more than 97% of vultures in India disappeared in the last 15 years, the fastest decline in the world.

90. Correct option is (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
PESA (Provisions of the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996) is a law made by GOI to ensure self governance through Gram Sabhas.
According to Article 243 (B), Gram sabha is a body that consists of persons who are registered in electoral rolls related to a particular panchayat village. 
Article 243 (A) says that Gram sabha should perform those functions which are provided in law by the concerned state.
However, gram sabha has power only to discuss, debate, examine and scrutinise. 
To prevent alienation of land in scheduled areas, gram sabha has been given necessary powers.
All the minor forest produces are under the ownership of Gram sabha. 
Grant of lease for any minor minerals should be done only with the permission of Gram Sabha.

91. Correct option is (A) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
Explanation:
The main aim of Adjournment motion is to draw the attention of Lok Sabha to the urgent matter of public importance that has serious consequences. 
Conditions of this motion:
Support from at least 50 members.
It should cover only one matter which is not being discussed presently in the house.
A matter which can be raised through other motions cannot be raised in this motion.
The motion is discussed at least for 2.5 hours.
Rajya Sabha cannot use this motion as it has similar option in the name of “Calling Attention”. 

92. Correct option is (C) 1 & 3 only
Explanation: 
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established to deal with the implementation of Biodiversity Act, 2002. 
NBA is required to do certain mandates:
Regulate the usage of biological resources of India
Enable action for conservation
Providing advice to state and central governments on the issues of sustainable use, conservation and access and benefit sharing.
Can take any measures to oppose the granting of intellectual property rights (IPR) outside India on any biological resource or knowledge derived from India.
Checks the bio conspiracy and also protects the biological or traditional genetic resources. For example, in 2011, NBA clearly investigated the bio conspiracy of Bt-Brinjal.

93. Correct option is (A) 1 only
Explanation:
Due to high rise of environment-related complaints, National Green Tribunal was created for the effective disposal of cases.
National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was created by the parliament to effectively divert and manage the increasing number of pending cases. 
This right is in consonance with some other provisions in the Indian Constitution:
Article 21, as it promises basic right of individuals to a safe and pollution-free environment.
Right to life is guaranteed by Article 21 and this right also includes ecological balance free from pollution of air, preservation and protection of environment.
    Note: Gram Sabha, Scheduled areas and Scheduled tribes provisions in the constitution have nothing to do with National Green Tribunal.


94. Correct option is (B) 1 & 2 only
Explanation:
National action plan on climate change was launched by Prime Minister to deal with the threats of global warming. 
This plan consists of eight missions, out of which National water mission is one. 
The main aim of National water mission is to conserve water, reduce the wastage and ensure equitable distribution of water across various states through integrated water resources management and development.
Exploring new sources through this mission:
Recycling and reusing of water as far as possible
New technologies can be used for purifying water
To desalinate seawater and brackish water, reverse osmosis can be used
Water harvesting should be mandated
Multipurpose hydro projects should enhance water storage capacities 

95. Correct option is (B) 2 & 3 only
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy of India are borrowed from Irish constitution and are not enforceable in the court of law.
Some Gandhian principles were also incorporated in these directive principles.
Gandhian principles as DPSP:
Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats
Article 43: Promoting cottage industries
Article 46: promoting and protecting educational and economic interests of STs, SCs and other weaker sections and protect them from exploitation and social injustice.
Article 47: Prohibiting the consumption of intoxicating drugs and drinks that are injurious to health.
Article 48: prohibiting slaughter of calves, cows and draught cattle and also improve their breeds.

96. Correct option is (D) None
Explanation:
Parliament of India consists of President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. President is also included as a part of parliament though he is not a member of either of the houses.
Lok Sabha is called House of people and Rajya Sabha is called House of States. It means that Lok Sabha represents people of the constituencies whereas Rajya Sabha represents states and Union Territories.
The strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 out of which 238 members represent states, 12 are nominated by the President and the remaining two represents two union territories (Delhi and Puducherry).
When there are election disputes of President and Vice President, the deciding authority is Supreme Court. If it comes with the disqualification of MPs, then President resolves the disputes with the recommendations of Election Commission.

97. Correct option is (C) 1 & 3 only
Explanation:
Consumer Protection Act 1986 was enacted to protect the interests of consumers. This act gives us six basic consumer rights. 
Consumers have right to access various services and goods at competitive prices.
Consumers have right to safety from hazardous products which poses threat to their properties and lives. This holds good mainly in pharmaceuticals, healthcare and food processing sector.
Any consumer has right to know information about the quantity, quality, purity, potency, standard and price of services and goods.
Every consumer has right to be heard in consumer forums. In case of any dissatisfaction, consumer can file complaint in consumer forum by paying nominal fee.
For redressal of any disputes, consumer can approach consumer courts at national, state and district levels.
Consumers also have right to consumer education so that consumers can make effective purchasing decisions.

98. Correct option is (B) 3 only
Explanation:
Lok Sabha speaker and deputy speaker are elected from the members of the house during first meeting of the house after election.
The speaker is elected with simple majority. In general, the member of ruling party gets elected as speaker
The term of the speaker is five years.
The salary of the speaker is charged on the Consolidated fund of India and hence is not subjected to vote of parliament.
He/she holds the office until the house is dissolved.
Speaker submits his/her resignation to deputy speaker.
Speaker doesn’t vote in first instance and has casting vote.

99. Correct option is (C) 1 & 4
Explanation:
Supreme court has original, advisory and appellate jurisdiction. 
The exclusive jurisdiction of supreme court consists of 
Dispute between central and one or more state governments
Dispute between two or more states
Any question regarding the existence of legal right
Article 32 gives original jurisdiction to Supreme Court to enforce fundamental rights. SC has power to issue orders or writs, directions to enforce the fundamental rights.

100. Correct option is (D) 1, 2 & 3
Explanation:
Biopesticides or Biological pesticides are pesticides obtained from bacteria, plants and other microbes like nematodes, fungi etc.
A well known example of insecticide is Bacillus Thuringiensis, a bacterial disease of Diptera, Lepidoptera and Coleoptera.
Other examples are entomopathogenic fungi, entomopathogenic viruses, rodents and weeds (microbial agents). 
Naturally occuring materials like plant extracts  and fungal extracts can be used as biopesticides. Some examples are insect pheromones, Spinosad, Chitosan.
Some naturally delivered plant-products like alkaloids , phenolics, terpenoids can be used as biopesticides. Some Vegetable oils like Canola oil also has pesticidal properties.