UPSC Geography Optional Question Paper 2019: CSM Paper-I
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Civil Service IAS Mains Exam: Geography Optional Paper-1 (2019)
In this topic, we will talk about UPSC CSM geography optional paper-i previous year 2019 question paper.
Marks-250 Time- Three Hours
Question Paper Specific Instructions:
Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.
- There are EIGHT questions divided into two sections.
- A candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.
- Questions no 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each section.
- The number of marks carried by a question /part is indicated against it.
- Word limit in questions, wherever specified should be adhered to.
- Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, an attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.
Q.1 Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:
(a) Describe phreatic eruptions and their consequences. 10 marks
(b) Explain the techniques to calculate potential evapotranspiration suggested by Thornthwaite. 10 marks
(c) How are sandspits and tombolos formed? 10 marks
(d) Amensalism is abiotic factor that determines the geographic limits of species. Explain. 10 marks
(e) How do mountaineers constitute a threat to Mount Everest? 10 marks
Q.2 (a) Why is it necessary to conserve the genetic diversity of species? Do protected areas serve any useful purpose in this context? 20 marks
(b) Compare and contrast different types of plate boundaries. 15 marks
(c) Explain the nature of urban climates and their impact on global environmental change. 15 marks
Q.3 (a) Discuss in detail the tri-cellular model of atmospheric circulation. 20 marks
(b) How are soil acidity and alkalinity related to soil fertility? 15 marks
(c) “The web of life is seamless and the consequences of disruption to one part of the ecosystem ripple throughout the whole." Elaborate. 15 marks
Q.4 (a) Discuss the methods of measuring the intensity and magnitude of earthquakes. How are seismic zones demarcated? 20 marks
(b) The impact of floods on life and property can be most effectively reduced by hazard mapping. Comment. 15 marks
(c) How are ocean waves formed? Distinguish between a wave of oscillation and a wave of translation. 15 marks
SECTION - B
Q.5 Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10×5=50 marks
(a) "A language originates at a particular place and diffuses to other locations through the migration of its speakers." Examine this statement in the context of language hot spots and endangered language hot spots. 10 marks
(b) Define stunting and wasting. Why are these more prevalent among children in developing countries? 10 marks
(c) Explain the relationship between net reproductive rate (NRR) and true replacement level of the population. 10 marks
(d) What are the natural regions? How are they different from planning regions? 10 marks
(e) Discuss the genetic classification of boundaries suggested by Hartshorne. 10 marks
Q.6 (a). HDI has brought about a paradigm shift in the way people think about the development process. Critically examine the inherent limitations of HDI. 20 marks
(b) "A large-scale global shift in manufacturing is the outcome of deindustrialization in the developed world matched by industrialization in the developing world." Analyze this statement. 15 marks
(c) What do you mean by 'climate migrants'? Suggest appropriate policies and programmes for their resettlement. 15 marks
Q.7 (a) What changes in the current planning, management, and governance of human settlements are needed to face the changing environment including climate change and disaster vulnerabilities in cities? 20 marks
(b) Globalization can often subsume folk culture. What are its positive and negative effects? 15 marks
(c) "Growth is not uniform in different places." Critically examine this statement in the context of the growth pole theory. 15 marks
Q.8 (a) Distinguish between 'isodapanes' and isotims'. Critically examine the least cost theory of industrial location given by Alfred Weber. 20 marks
(b) Assess the challenges for countries with the largest shares of aged populations. 15 marks
(c) Examine the relevance of the ‘rimland theory' in the contemporary world. 15 marks