HPSC HCS 2021 re-exam 24th July I answer key I GS I Question paper
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HPSC HCS 2021 re-exam 24th July I answer key I GS I Question paper

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HPSC HCS 2021 re-exam 24th July I answer key I GS I Question paper

This is the original paper conducted on 24th July 2022 by HPSC. This General Studies Paper has 100 questions. 

Q1. Match List-I with List-II:-

List -I   List -II

 A.  Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime                         

  (i) Given to the overall top performing university in the inter-university tournament.

Achievement

  B.  Dronacharya Award                                                    

 

  (ii) Recognizes contribution made to sports development by entities other than sportsperson and coaches.                                                                                                

  C.  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy

  (iii) Honours eminent coaches who have successfully Trained sportspersons and teams and enabled them to achieve outstanding results in international   competitions.

  D.  Rashtriye Khel Protsahan Puraskar   

  (iv) Honours those sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to promotion of sports even after retirement from active sporting career.

A-(iv), B -(iii), C-(i), D- (I)                                  (B) A-(iii), B -(iv), C-(ii), D- (i)

(C) A-(ii), B -(i), C-(iii), D- (iv)                            (D) A-(i), B -(ii), C-(iv), D- (iii)

Q2. Which of the following statements are true?

  1. Haryana was the first state in the country to achieve hundred percent rural electrification in 1970 itself.
  2. Haryana is the sole holder of the country’s rock salt resources.
  3. “Mera Pani Meri Virasat” scheme of Haryana aims to shift farmer’s focus from growing water consuming crop like paddy to other less water requiring crops.
  4. Under “Mahara Gaon- Jagmag Gaon”. More than 5000 villages in Haryana have been provided with 24 hour supply.

(A)1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q3. Reserve Bank of India raised the repo rate by 40 basis points in May 2022. Now consider the following statements.

  1. Repo rates are increased to control inflation.
  2. With increase in repo rates, cost of borrowing money increases.
  3. With reduction in repo rates, Industry gets loans at higher rates from the lender.
  4. To decrease money supply in the economy, the RBI hikes up repo rates to encourage banks for borrowing funds.

Select the correct statements using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only

Q4. Consider the following from Haryana’s Budget 2022-23.

  1. Revenue deficit has been brought within the limits prescribed by 15th Finance Commission under the FRBM Act.
  2. Fiscal deficit has been projected at 2.98 percent of GSDP in BE of 2022-23.
  3. Debt to GSDP ratio is below 25 percent for Fiscal Year 2021-22 RE.
  4. 47 existing budgetary demands for grants have been consolidated into 29 budgetary demands for grants.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only

Q5. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojna (AB-PMJAY) provides accessible and affordable health care to the common man in the country. Which of the following are correct about the scheme ?

  1. AB-PMJAY provides a cover upto Rs.three lakhs per family per year, for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across the public and private empaneled hospitals in the country.
  2. It provides cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiary at the point of service.
  3. Pre-existing conditions are covered from day one.
  4. Benefits of the scheme are not portable across the country.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only

Q6. Match List I with List II :-

            List- I                                                                                                                 List - II

      A. Mata ni pachedi                                                                                                  I. Uttar Pradesh

     B. Sanjhi                                                                                                                  II. Gujarat

     C. Phad                                                                                                                    III. Odisha

     D. Saura Paintings                                                                                                   IV. Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III                                                                                    (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II                                                                                    (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Q7.     Match List- I : Name of the variety Units with                                                                   List- II: Textile

              List- I                                                                                                                                 List-II

        A. Shabnam                                                                                                                                  I. Wool

        B. Mashru                                                                                                                                     II. Cotton

        C. Dhabla                                                                                                                                      III. Muslin

        D. Chintz                                                                                                                                       IV. Cotton and Silk mix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II            (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I          (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II            (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q8. Consider the following events in the history of India :

  1. Rise of Pratiharas under King MIhir (Bhoja I)
  2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman
  3. Pala dynasty founded by Gopal
  4. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time.

(A) 2-1-4-3       (B) 3-1-4-2        (C) 2-3-1-4          (D) 3-4-1-2

Q9. With reference to the Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following events :-

  1. Second Round Table conference                                      2. Dandi March

     3. Rowlatt Act                                                                        4. Death of Jatin Das

The correct chronological sequence is (from earliest to recent)

(A) 4, 3, 1, 2 (B) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q10 In the later vedic period, the term “ Bali “ denoted

A. Sacrifice      B. Tax    C. Powerful landlords        D. Revenue

Q11. “Ashtapada” in ancient India referred to

(A)   A marriage ritual     (B) An Asura with eight legs        (C) Game of chess      (D) Cavalry unit comprising of eight horse

Q12. Consider the following statements about Yeast :

  1. Yeast are fungi.            2. Yeast can form pseudomycelium.   3. Yeast reproduce asexually by budding    4. Yeasts are facultative anaerobes

5. All Yeasts are dimorphic.      6. All Yeasts are pathogenic.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) 1,2,3,4        (B) 1, 2, 3, 6       (C) 3, 4, 5, 6            (D) 2, 3, 4, 5

Q13. Match List I with List II :-

List-I                                                                                         List-II

 A. Arikamedu                                                                    1. Patrons

B. Tolkappiyam                                                                  2. Measure of land

C. Vallals                                                                            3. ‘Roman Factory’

D. Ma and Veli                                                                   4. Tamil grammar

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

(C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Q14. Consider the following varieties of Mangoes found in India :

i. Chausa- West Bengal ii. Totapuri - Madhya Pradesh

iii. Kesar- Gujarat iv. Alphonso - Maharashtra

Which of the above is correctly matched ?

(A) i and ii only (B) ii and iii only (C) i and iv only (D) iii and iv only

Q15. Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Rajendra - I Chola, introduced Maligai- Kol, a standardized measuring unit.

Statement-II : Rajendra - I Chola’s son Arumolivarman built the famous Brihadeshwar Temple.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(A) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct.

(B) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are incorrect.

(C) Statement- I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(D) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Q16. Choose the correct hierarchy from the highest to lowest level in Mughal India.

A. Faujdar - Subadar - Amin - Muqaddam

B. Subadar - Amin - Muqaddam - Faujdar

C. Amin - Muqaddam - Subadar - Faujdar

D. Subadar - Faujdar - Amin - Muqaddam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) A only        (B) B only                    (C) C only                              (D) D only

Q17. Match List I with List II :-

List- I                                                                                                                   List- II

  1. Tipu Shah                                                                           I. Benaras Rebellion
  2. Dudu Mian                                                                         II. Faraizi Movement
  3. Chait Singh                                                                        III. Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya
  4. Titu Mir IV. Pagal Panthi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV                           (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II          (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III                 (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q18. a. Manjusha art is an art form of Angadesh, present day Bhagalpur.

       b. The main colours used in this art form are Pink, Green and Yellow only

Which of the above statement /statements are correct ?

(A) Only a            (B) Only b         (C) Both a and b            (D) Neither a nor b.

Q19. Match List I with List II :-

        List- I                                                                                                            List- II

  1. Kilakot                                                                                                        I. Madhubani
  2. Kohbar                                                                                                       II. Patachitra
  3. Thia -badia                                                                                                 III. Sanjhi
  4. Morakuti                                                                                                     IV. Picchvai

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III                       (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV             (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III                     (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q20. Consider the following statements :

Statement - I : When an ultrasound travels from one medium to the other medium, its wavelength, frequency and speed change.

Statement - II : The frequency of an ultrasound wave remains almost unchanged while travelling from one medium to the other medium.

Statement -III : The frequency and speed of an ultrasound wave change when travelling from one medium to the other medium.

Statement -IV : ‘Echocardiography’ - a technique used in medical diagnostics, employs ultrasound.

Which of the following combinations of above statements are true?

(A) Statements - I and II                                                        (B) Statements - I and III

(C) Statements - II and IV                                                      (D) Statements - III and IV

Q21. A person is not able to see distant objects clearly.

Statement - I : The person is suffering from Hypermetropia.

Statement - II : The defect may have been caused due to excessive curvature of the eye lens or elongation of the eyeball.

Statement - III : The defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.

Statement - IV : The defect can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable power.

Which of the following combinations of above statements are correct ?

(A) Statements - I and III (B) Statements - II and IV

(C) Statements - I and IV (D) Statements - II and III

Q22. Which of the following provisions require(s) ratification from not less than one- half of the states for an amendment to the Constitution ?

A. Any of the list in the Seventh Schedule   B. Article 54, Article 55 and Article 73

C. Chapter VII                                               D. Chapter I of part IX

Choose the right code :

(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and D (D) D and A

Q23. Which of the following Article bars the courts from interfering in disputes arising out of certain treaties and agreements made by the Princely States before the commencement of the Constitution ?

(A) Article 358       (B) Article 363          (C) Article 366             (D) Article 368

Q24. In which Part and Chapter of the Constitution was the Right to Property inserted after being removed from Part III ?

(A) Part XI, Chapter III                   (B) Part XII, Chapter IV

(C) Part XIV, Chapter I                   (D) Part XI, Chapter I

Q25. I R Coelho judgment (2007) of the Supreme court deals with :

(A) Autonomous institutions                  (B) Basic Structure of the Constitution

(C) Scheduled Areas                               (D) None of the above

Q26. Match the cell organelle listed in Column -”A’ with their function in Column- ‘B’ and select the correct option.

Column- A                                                                                                    Column- B

i. Golgi body                                                                                                  A. Digestion

ii. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum                                                                 B. Formation of lysosome

iii. Ribosome                                                                                                  C. Protein Synthesis

Iv. Lysosome                                                                                                   D. Lipid Synthesis

Code :

(A) i-A, ii- B, iii- C, iv- D                       (B) i-B, ii- D, iii- A, iv- C              (C) i-B, ii- D, iii- C, iv- A                         (D) i-D, ii- C, iii- A, iv- B

Q27. Which of the following group of diseases comprises genetic diseases ?

  1. Sickle cell anemia, AIDS, Down syndrome
  2. AIDS, Hepatitis B, Cancer
  3. Hemophilia, Hepatitis B, Colour blindness
  4. Sickle cell anemia, Hemophilia, Down syndrome

Q28. Given below are two statements :

Statement- I : Chandrayaan -2 was launched on July 22, 2019, from Sriharikota by a Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III. The spacecraft consisted of an Orbiter, a lander , and a rover.

Statement - II : The orbiter will circle the Moon in a polar orbit at a height of 100 km (62 miles).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

  1. Both Statement- I and Statement - II are correct.
  2. Both Statement- I and Statement - II are incorrect.
  3. Statement- I is correct but Statement- II is incorrect
  4. Statement- I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct

Q29. Which of the following is not a preservative ?

(A) Dulcin                    (B) Potassium metabisulphite       (C) Sodium Benzoate                            (D) Sorbic acid salts

Q30. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Biogas contains large amounts of methane which can be used as a fuel for several purposes. As it releases no smoke or residue, it should be considered as a good and safe source of energy.

Reason (R) : Biogas also contains carbon dioxide and the higher content of carbon dioxide contributes to lower energy of biogas in comparison to natural gas.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Q31. Before the inception of the five-year plan in India, which of these plans were in existence?

  1. Bharat Plan                     B. Sarvodaya Plan                C. Farmer Plan                            D. Bombay Plan

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only          (B) 1 and 4 only                     (C) 2 and 4 only                        (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q32. Which of the following is (are) true in respect of the electric current used at your home ?

i. Microwave Oven and television uses DC current.

ii. Refrigerator and washing machine uses AC current

iii. Air cooler and air conditioner uses AC current.

iv. Most of the devices use 220 ampere current.

v. Magnitude of current passing through different devices is same.

A. Only i, ii and iv                 (B) Only ii and iii               (C) Only iii and iv                 (D) Only ii, iii, iv and v

Q33. Consider the following statements:

Statement - I : The magnitude field line emerge from the north pole and merge at the south pole of a bar magnet.

Statement - II : The direction of the magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a compass needle moves.

Statement - III : There is no field inside a bar magnet.

Statement - IV : The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) Statements- I, II, III and IV (B) Statements- I, II, and III

(C) Statements- I, II and IV (D) Statements- II, III and IV

Q34. Consider the following statements:

Statement - I : An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Statement - II : An electric generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Statement - III : Both electric motor and generator work on the same principle.

Which of the above statement(s) is /are correct ?

(A) Statements- II and III                                  (B) Statements- I and III            (C) Statements- I and II     (D) Statements- I, II and III

Q35. Read the statements and select the correct answer from the given options:

Statement - I : Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys.

Statement - II : Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.

(A) Statement - I is True, Statement- II is false.

(B) Statement - I is False , Statement- II is True.

(C) Both Statements are True and Statement - II provides explanation to Statement- I

(D) Both Statements are True and Statement - II does not provides explanation to Statement- I

Q36. Which of the following statements are correct about Eastern and Western GHats?

  1. Anaimudi is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats.
  2. Western Ghats are comparatively lower in elevation and less continuous than Eastern Ghats.
  3. Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats.
  4. The Eastern and the Western ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.

Select the correct answer using the code below :

(A) Only 1 and 2                (B) only 3 and 4                             (C) only 1, 2 and 3               (D) only 2, 3 and 4

Q37. Which of the following statement/ statements are correct about a disaster which struck Uttarakhand’s Chamoli district in February 2021?

  1. A portion of the Gangotri glacier broke off and caused havoc.
  2. There was a sudden flood in the middle of the day in the Dhauli Ganga, Rishi Ganga and Alaknanda rivers.
  3. Tapovan - Vishnugad Hydel Project and the Rishi Ganga Hydel Project were extensively damaged.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(A) Only 1             (B) Only 1 and 2                  (C) Only 2 and 3                    (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q38. Read the given statements and select the correct answer from the options given:

Statement - I : Sikkim Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran.

Statement - II : Karewas are thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.

(A) Statement- I is True, Statement - II is False.

(B) Statement- I is False , Statement - II is True.

(C) Both Statements are True and Statement - II provides explanation to Statement- I

(D) Both Statements are True and Statement - II does not provides explanation to Statement- I

Q39. Which of the following characteristics are correct about waves?

  1. Wind causes waves to travel in the ocean.
  2. The actual motion of water beneath the wave is not circular.
  3. Steep waves are not fairly young ones and are probably formed by local winds.
  4. The highest and lowest points of a wave are called the crest and trough respectively.

Select the correct answer using the code below :

(A) 1 and 2                   (B) 2 and 3                            (C) 3 and 4                          (D) 1 and 4

Q40. Match the climatic regions of India according to Koeppen’s scheme.

Column I                                                                                                                              Column II

Types of Climate                                                                                                                  Areas

  1. BWhw                                                                                                                   A. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Dfc                                                                                                                        B. West Coast of India south of Goa
  3. Amw                                                                                                                     C. Extreme Western Rajasthan
  4. As `                                                                                                                       D. Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu

(A) 1- A, 2-B, 3- C, 4- D                                (B) 1- C, 2-D, 3- A, 4- B           (C) 1- C, 2-A, 3- B, 4- D                (D) 1- A, 2-C, 3- B, 4- D

Q41. India presented the following nectar elements of India’s climate change ate COP 26, in Glasgow:

  1. Reach 1000 GW Non- fossil energy capacity by 2030.
  2. 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
  3. Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now to 2030.
  4. Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 percent by 2030, over 2005 levels.
  5. Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2090.

Which of the following are correct statements ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 3, 4 and 5 only (D) 1, 4 and 5 only

Q42. Top three commodities by percentage contribution in India’s export growth of $400bn are :-

1. Engineering goods 2. Petroleum products

3. Gems and Jewellery 4. Rice

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q43. The National Apprenticeship Training Scheme is a programme equipping technically qualified youth with practical knowledge and skills required in their field of work. Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheme ?

  1. It is a 6 months programme.
  2. tHe Apprentices are imparted training by the organizations at their place of work.
  3. During the period of Apprenticeship, the Apprentices are not paid any stipend.

(A)  1 and 2 only  (B) 2 only  (C) 3 only    (D) 2 and 3 only

Q44. Which of the following statements are true?

  1. GDPMP is the market value of all final Goods and Services produced within the geographical boundary of a country in a year.
  2. If the GDP of a country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence.
  3. The ratio of nominal GDP to Real GDP is called GDP Deflator.
  4. The ratio of real GDP to nominal GDP is called GDP Deflator.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q45. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Deaflympics, 2022 ?

1. It was held in Caxias Do Sul, Brazil 2. It was held from 1st April to 15th April, 2022.

3. Indian athletes won a total of 16 medals 4. Sumit Dahiya won a gold medal in wrestling

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only

Q46. Which of the Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat Engagement Matrix between States and UTs is correct?

  1. Gujarat : Chhattisgarh
  2. Maharashtra : Odisha
  3. Goa : Karnataka
  4. Chandigarh and Puducherry : Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 4 only

Q47. Match the Ramsar Sites in List I with their locations in List II :-

                List I                                                                                                     List II

  1. Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary                                                                      (i) Tripura
  2. Rudrasagar Lake                                                                                      (ii) Haryana
  3. Tso Kar Lake Complex                                                                             (iii) Kerala
  4. Sasthamkotta Lake                                                                                  (iv) Uttar Pradesh
  5. Bhindawas                                                                                                (v) Ladakh

(A) A- (iv), B- (i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii)                                                 (B) A- (iii), B- (i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(ii)

(C) A- (iii), B- (i), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(ii)                                                 (D) A- (i), B- (v), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)

Q48. Which of the following river(s) is/are correctly matched with its/their tributaries ?

  1. Krishna : Tungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Malprabha
  2. Ganga : Gomti, Kosi, Gandak
  3. Yamuna : Ken, Betwa, Chambal
  4. Cauvery : Kabini, Bhima, Hemavati

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A, B C only                   (B) A, B, D only             (C) B, C, D only                    (D) A, C, D only

Q49. The correct order of the given rivers when arranged by length from longest to shortest is :

(A) Mahanadi, Narmada, Godavari, Krishna                    (B) Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Tapi

(C) Narmada, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna                    (D) Godavari, Narmada, Krishna, Mahanadi

Q50. In the context of the Quit India Movement (1942), which pair/s mentioned below is /are matched properly.

  1. Usha Mehta - Clandestine Radio broadcast
  2. K T Bhashyam - Running independent local government
  3. Chitu Pandey - Labour unrest
  4. Matangini Hazra- Attack on police station

Options:

(A) a and b                  (B) b and c                        (C) c and d                 (D) a and d

Q.51.Match the following details about Shah jahan’s construction activities :

a. Moti Masjid                                                         i. Lahore

b. Jahangir’s mausoleum                                        ii. Taj Mahal

c. Extensive use of calligraphy                               iii. Peacock

d. First commissioned after becoming emperor    iv. Agra

(A) a-iv , b-i , c-iii, d-ii             (B) a-i , b-iv , c-iii, d-ii            (C) a-iv , b-i , c-ii ,d-iii                     (D) a-i , b-iv , c-ii , d-iii

Q.52.Match the information given below with respective Sufi Saints:

a. Bahauddin Zakariya i. Gulbarga

b. Muinuddin Chishti ii. Delhi

c. Bande Nawz Gesu Garaz iii. Ajmer

d. Nasiruddin Chirag iv. Founder. Suhrawardiyya Order

(A) a-iv , b-iii , c-i, d-ii                     (B) a-i , b-iii , c-ii, d-iv                (C) a-ii , b-iii , c-i ,d-iv               (D) a-ii , b-iii , c-iv , d-i

Q.53.“ … gives evidence of a planned settlement and mud brick structure in early Harappan period I. The range of pottery types was similar to that of Kalibangan . Artefacts included uninscribed seals , pottery with graffiti, terracotta wheels, cars, rattles , and bull figurines, chert blades, weights, a bone point, and a muller. A lot of animal bones were found during the excavations, indicating the importance of animal husbandry. A stacked set of hopscotches was found in an open area behind the structural complex. This suggests the possibility that a game similar to pithu, which is popular among children in India and Pakistan, goes back to early Harappan times!” - This statement is a description of which Harappan site in India?

(A) Banawali, Haryana                     (B) Dholavira, Gujarat

(C) Alamgirpur, UP                          (D) Rakhigarhi ,Haryana

Q.54. Which of the following statements about King Harshavardhana are correct ?

  1. He belong to the Maukhari dynasty
  2. He was defeated by Pualkesin II
  3. Ban , Mayura and matanga Divakara were the famous writers at his court
  4. Harsha himself wrote three plays Ratnavali , priyadarshika , Nagamanjari

(A) a, b and c                    (B) a,b and d               (C) b, c and d                             (D) a,c and d

Q.55. Arrange the following temples constructions in chronological order (from most ancient to the recent times):

  1. Rebuilding of madurai Meenakshi temple by the Nayaks
  2. Vitthala Temple at Hampi
  3. Group of temples at pattadakal
  4. Brihadishvara Temple, Tanjavur

(A) a,b,c ,d                (B) c ,d, b,a                (C) c, b , d, a                    (D) a,b,d , c

Q.56. Photosynthesis is a process that helps green plants synthesize their food. A cascade of events and chemical reactions takes place in a specified sequential order . Choose an event that does not take place in photosynthesis

(A) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll                   (B) Reduction of Carbon dioxide to carbohydrate

(C) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide                        (D) Splitting of water

Q.57. A couple suspects a mix up of their new born baby in the hospital . Blood typing is sought to resolve the dispute . The man has blood group A and the woman has blood group B . Their biological child can have blood group

i. Either A or B                     ii. A or B or O or AB

iii. A or B or AB                   iv. Only AB

Choose the correct option:

(A) i Only              (B) ii only                (C) iii only                   (D) iv only

Q58.Consider the following statements:-

i Nitrification is a process in which nitrogen is converted to nitrogen

ii Denitrification is a process in which nitrogen is converted into nitrates

iii. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) contain nitrogen.

iv. During atmospheric lightening, Nitrogen in the air gets converted into oxides of nitrogen.

v.Nitrogen fixing bacteria are present in root legumes.

Choose the correct statements :

(A) i, ii , iii and v                (B) ii , iii , and v                 (C) iii , iv and v                              (D) i , ii and iv

Q.59.Consider the following statement about Lichens:

i Lichens are algae                             ii Lichens are autotrophs

iii Lichens are fungi                           iv. Lichens are symbiotic lifeforms.

v. Lichens are saprotrophs

Choose the correct statements :

(A) i and v                  (B) ii and iv                 (C) i , iii and v                    (D) i , iv and v

Q.60.Following are some process involving change of state :

A. Evaporation of water

B. Burning of candle

C. Dissolution of sugar in water

D. Electrolysis of water to form hydrogen and oxygen

Select the correct option -

(A) B, C and D involve chemical change only                 (B) A , B and C involve physical change only

(C) only A is a physical change                                       (D) B involves both physical and chemical change

Q.61.Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Plaster of Paris is obtained on heating gypsum

B. Sodium carbonate is an important constituent of baking powder.

C. Bleaching powder can also act as an oxidising agent.

D. Ten water molecules are present in one formulae unit of chemical species of a sample with common name blue vitriol.

E. Sodium hydroxide is produced by passing electricity through the aqueous solution of Sodium chloride

(A) A, B, and D                   (B) A, C and E                     (C) B and D                (D) only E

Q62. select the correct statement regarding cleansing action of soap .

A. Hydrophilic end of soap molecules interacts with the oily droplets

B. The formation of micelles in a soap solution during the cleaning of clothes is called emulsification.

C. The hydrophobic end of the soap molecules is in the inner side during micelle formation.

D. micelles surround the Ca2+  or Mg2+ ions in hard water instead of oily droplets.

(A) A, B and C         (B) A and D         (C) B and C            (D) B , C and D

Q.63. A vitamin that functions both as a hormone and a visual pigment

(A) Riboflavin             (B) Folic acid        (C) Thiamine               (D) Retinal/ Retinol

Q.64.The total percentage of carbon present in our human body is

(A) 18 to 19 percent            (B) 20 to 25 percent          (C) 15 to 16 percent             (D) None of the above

Q.65. During expiration the air will leave the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs must become

(A) equal to the atmospheric pressure         (B) lower than atmospheric pressure    (C) higher than atmospheric pressure (D) diaphragm must contract

Q.66. Select the correct options from the codes given below about greenhouse gases from the following

i Methane                        ii Nitrogen

iii. Nitrous oxide               iv. Water vapours

Code:

(A) i , iii and iv only                 (B) i and ii only         (C) i and iii only                         (D) i , ii and iii only

Q.67.The Padma Awards are given in various disciplines/field of activity . Match the name of the Awardees of the year 2022 with their field of activities :-

Name Field

  1. Prabha Atre 1) Trade and Industry
  2. Radheyshyam Khemka (posthumous) 2) sports
  3. Natarajan Chandrasekaran 3) Science and Engineering
  4. Devendra Jhajharia 4) Literature and Education
  5. Sanjaya Rajaram (posthumous) 5) Art

Choose the correct option from below :-

(A)a-5 , b-4 ,c-1 , d-2 e-3                                (B) a-5 , b-1 ,c-2 , d-3 e-4            (C) a-1 , b-2 ,c-3 , d-4 e-5          (D) a-2 , b-3 ,c-4 , d-5 e-1

Q68. Match List I and List II :-

List I                                                                                                                                          List II

  1. Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve                                                                                1) Gandhi of Malkangiri
  2. Laxman Nayak                                                                                                  2) Old Gandhi
  3. Matangi Hazra                                                                                                  3) Hindi Literature Revolutionary
  4. Satchidananda Hiranand Vatsyayan ‘Agyeya’                                                   4) Pioneer of Women Empowerment

Choose the correct option from below :-

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4                (B) a-4, b-1 , c-2 , d-3               (C) a-2 , b-3 ,c-4 , d-1               (D) a-3 , b-4 ,c-1, d-2

Q.69.Which of the following is / are true regarding Tatya Tope, a significant face of the Freedom Struggle of 1857?

1. His real name was Ramachandra Pandurang Rao.

2. In Bithur , he came in contact with Nana shaheb and Moropant Tambe

3. He belonged to Yeola in Maharashtra

4. He led a rebellion in madhya pradesh and Rajasthan

(A) 1 , 2 and 3 only                (B) 2, 3 and 4 only            (C) 1, 3 and 4 only                          (D) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Q.70. With a view to position India as a global leader in technical textiles, National Technical Textiles Mission has been approved for creation with a four year implementation period from FY 2020-21 to FY 2023 - 2024 by the Ministry of Textiles , Government of India.

Consider the following statements:-

1. Technical Textiles products are divided into 14 broad categories depending upon their application areas.

2. Penetration level of technical textiles in India at 5-10% against 30-70 % in advanced countries .

3. Promotion of innovation amongst young engineering / technology / science standards and graduates will be taken up by the mission.

4. The National Technical Textiles Mission will be implemented through a 3 - tier institutional mechanism.

(A) 1, 2, and 3 only                  (B) 2, 3 and 4 only                (C) 1, 3, and 4 only                (D)1, 2 and 4 only

Q.71. Which of the following statement / statements is/are correct about Bharatmala Pariyojna

  1. It envisages replacement of level crossing on national highways by road over briges/road under Bridges.
  2. It aims to develop the road connectivity to border areas.
  3. It aims at development of coastal roads including road connectivity for non major ports.
  4. It aims at the improvement in the efficiency of national corridors.

Select the correct answer using the code below .

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only                (B) 2 , 3 and 4 only                         (C) 1, 2 and 4 only                       (D) 1, 2, 3 , and 4 only

Q.72. Match the name of the Dams in column - I with the river Column - II

Column - I                                                                                                                       Column - II

  1. Sardar Sarovar                                                                                                        A. Mahanadi
  2. Mettur                                                                                                                    B. Chambal
  3. Hirakund                                                                                                                C. Kaveri
  4. Gandhi Sagar                                                                                                         D. Narmada

(A) 1-D , 2-B , 3-C , 4-A                 (B)1-D , 2-D , 3-A , 4-B                 (C) 1-D , 2-D , 3-A , 4-C             (D) 1-D , 2-C , 3-A , 4-B

Q73. Which of the following Statement / statements is/ are correct about Pradhan mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

  1. It was launched to achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level.
  2. Expand cultivable area under assured irrigation
  3. Improve farm water use efficiency
  4. Introduce sustainable water conservation practices

    Select the correct answer using the code Below .

    (A) only 1, 2 and 3                        (B) only 1, 2 and 4                    (C) only 2 , 3 and 4                    (D) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

Q74. Match the name of the state given in Column - I with the phrase given in Column. II

Column - I Column - II

  1. Assam A. Abode of clouds
  2. Meghalaya B. Land of Red River and Blue Hills
  3. Uttarakhand C. God’s own City
  4. Kerala D. Land of Gods

(A) 1- B, 2-A , 3-D, 4-C                             (B)1- C, 2-D, 3-A , 4-B                             (C) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A , 4-C                     (D) 1- D, 2-C, 3-B , 4-A

Q.75. Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given:

Statement - I : The pattern of movement of planetary winds is called general circulation of the atmosphere

Statement - II : The general circulation of the atmosphere sets in motion the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate

(A) Statement - I is True, statement -II is False

(B) Statement - I is False , statement -II is True

(C) Both Statements are True and Statement - II Provides explanation to statement - I

(D) Both Statements are True and Statement - II does not Provides explanation to statement - I

Q. 76. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are correct about the movement of the Indian plate ?

1. The Indian plate includes peninsular India and the Australian continental portions.

2. The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the southern plate boundary in the form of continents - continent convergence

3. In the east , it extend through Rakinyoma Mountains of Myanmar towards the island arc along the java Trench.

4. The western margin follows Kirthar Mountain in Pakistan.

(A) only 1, 2 and 3                 (B) only 2 , 3 and 4              (C) only 1 , 3 and 4                   (D) Only 1 , 2 and 4

Q.77. Which of the following is correct ?

1. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon , which means particles from the surface change into the vapor state

2. Boiling is a bulk phenomenon , which means particles from the bulk (whole) of the liquid change into vapour state .

3.Deposition is the change of gaseous state directly to solid without converting into the liquid state

4. The state of matter can be changed by changing its temperature only.

(A) 1, 3 and 4                 (B) 1, 2 and 3                       (C) 1, 2 and 4                         (D) 2,3 and 4

Q.78.Match List - I with List -II

List - I                                                                                                                                  List - II

  1. Camphor from solid sodium chloride                                                                      I .chromatography
  2. Different pigments from an extract of flower petals                                                II. Distillation
  3. Acetone and water mixture                                                                                      III. centrifugation
  4. Butter from cream                                                                                                    IV. Sublimation

(A )1-II , 2-I , 3-IV, 4-III                             (B )1-II , 2-III , 3-IV, 4-I                 (C) 1-IV , 2-I , 3-II, 4-III          (D) 1-IV , 2-III , 3-I, 4-II

Q.79. Consider the legal issue involved in the following advisory opinion rendered by the Supreme court of India under the article 143(I) of the constitution.

List - I                                                                                                                            List - II

  1. Delhi Law Act, 1951                                                                                          I.Legislative privileges
  2. Keshav singh 1965                                                                                            II. Gujarat Gas
  3. special reference No.1 2001                                                                             III. Delegated Legislation
  4. special reference No.1 2002                                                                             IV. Gujarat Assembly Election

(A )1-III , 2-I , 3-IV, 4-II                                  (B ) 1-III , 2-I , 3-II, 4-IV          (C) 1-IV , 2-III , 3-IV, 4-II          (D) 1-II , 2-II , 3-III, 4-IV

Q80. Which of the following Union Territories are included in electoral college for election to office of President of India by the Constitution (70th Amendment ) Act, 1992 for purposes of Articles of 54 and 55 of the Constitution of India ?

A. NCT of Delhi                            B. Goa            C. Puducherry                D. Lakshadweep

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A)A and B only

(B) B and C only

(C)A and C only

(D) C and D only

Q81. Which of the following statements is/are correct for the Public Accounts Committee ?

  1. It comprises of not more than 10 members from the Lok Sabha and not more than 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.
  2. As per convention a member of the opposition acts as its Chairman.
  3. It examines the statement of accounts showing the income & expenditure of the state corporations, autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies.
  4. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year at a time.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A, B and C only       (B) A, C and D only       (C) A, B and D only         (D) B, C and D only

Q82.Consider the following statement regarding the appointment of ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the following is/are correct ?

  1. Ad hoc Judge is to be appointed if the quorum of the Supreme Court judges is insufficient to hold or continue any session of the Court.
  2. Chief Justice of India is required to consult the Chief Justice of the concerned High court before appointing a Judge of the said High Court as Ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court.
  3. For appointment of ad hoc Judge, prior consent of the President is not mandatory.
  4. Ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court while attending the sittings of the Supreme Court enjoys all powers and privileges of a Supreme Court Judge.

(A) A, B and C only     (B) A and B only     (C) C and D only      (D) A, B and D only

Q83. Leaders who served more than once as the President of Indian National Congress

A. Surendranath Banerjee                               B. W.C . Banerjee

C. Dadabhai Naoroji                                       D. Rahimtullah M. Sayani

E. Sir William Wedderburn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B and D only       (B) A, B, C and E only      (C) A, B, C,D only     (D) All of the above

Q84. a. Maharaja Ranjit Singh came from Karorasinghia Mai Misl.

  1. Jean-Francois Allard and Jean Baptiste Ventura were the two Nepoleonic generals in service of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Which of the above statement/ statements are correct ?

(A) Only a       (B) Only b        (C) Both a and b      (D) Neither a nor b

Q85. Which among the following were women Adayar saints of South Indian Bhakti Movement ?

A. Karaikal Ammaiyar                  B. Godadevi

C. Isaignaaniyar                           D. Akka Mahadevi

E. Mangayarkkarasiyar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B, D only      (B) D, C ,E only      (C) A,C, E only     (D) B, C, D only

Q86.Which statement(s) is/are correct about the Cotton Plantation in India in the 19th century?

  1. American Civil War of 1861 impacted Cotton production in India.
  2. Cotton production boomed in Deccan countryside
  3. By 1862, 90% of cotton import to Britain came from India.
  4. Expansion in cotton production made ryots richer than the sahukars
  5. The Deccan Riot of 1875 was the reaction of sahukars against the rich ryots

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B, C only      (B) A,C,D only       (C) A,B,D only       (D) D,E only

Q87 Match List I: Inscription with List II: Kings  

  1. List -I                                                                                                                        List - II.
  1. Sanchi Copper Plate Inscription                                                                 I. Pulkeshin -II
  2. Aihole Inscription                                                                                       II.Mihir Bhoja
  3. Allahabad Pillar Inscription                                                                        III. Chandragupta - II
  4. Barah Copper Plate Inscription                                                                  IV. Samudragupta

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II         (B) A-IV, B-I, C-III,D-II         (C) A-II, B-IV ,C-I, D-III     (D) A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV

Q88. Match List -I: Land/Taxation Units with List-II: personalities

          List -I                                                                                                                                    List - II

  1. Dahsala System                                                                                                                 I. Alauddin Khilji
  2. Bigha-i-Daftari                                                                                                                  II. Raja Todar Mal
  3. Biswa                                                                                                                                 III. Shahjahan
  4. Guz/Gaz                                                                                                                             IV. Sikandar Lodi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I        (B) A-II , B -III, C-IV , D -I          (C) A -II ,B -III , C -I ,D -IV        (D) A- I , B-III, C-II, D -IV

Q89. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about Laterite Soils?

  1. These soils develop in the areas with high temperature and low rainfall.
  2. These soils are rich in organic matter , nitrogen, phosphate and calcium.
  3. These soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction.
  4. These soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the peninsular plateau.

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 3 and 4
    3. 1,2 and 3
    4. 2,3 and 4

Q90.Match List I with List II

              List I                                                                                                                      List II

  1. Basel Convention, 1989/1992                 I. Persistent Organic Pollutant
  2. Rotterdam Convention, 1998/2004        II. Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Waste 
  3. Minamata Convention, 2013/2017         III. Facilitate informed decision making by Countries with regard to trade in Hazardous Chemicals
  4. Stockholm Convention , 2001/2004       IV. Mercury

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (A) A-III, B-II ,C-IV ,D-I      (B) A-II,B-III, C-IV,D-I      (C) A-III,B-II, C-I, D-IV        (D) A-II, B-I , C-IV, DIII
  1.  

Q91. According to Census of India, 2011, the languages of India are classified into 5 distinct families, namely, the Indo-European , the Dravidian, the Austro-Asiatic, the Tibeto-Burman and the Semito-Hamitic. Large number of speakers of these languages are found in certain states. Hence match List I with List II:

LIST I (Language family)                                                                                                                             LIST II (States / UTs)

  1. The Indo-European                                           I. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu , Karnataka
  2. The Dravidian                                                   II. Assam, Manipur, Nagaland
  3. The Austro-Asiatic                                            III. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra , Bihar
  4. The Tibeto-Burman                                           IV. Jharkhand, Odisha, Meghalaya

(A) A-III,B-I,C-IV D-II     (B) A-II, B-IV , C-I , D-III    (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV     (D) A-IV, B-III,C-II,D-I

Q92.Match the crop with the State that is its leading producer.

Crops                                                       Leading producer

  1. Jowar                                         1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Bajra                                          2. Maharashtra
  3. Rice                                           3. Rajasthan
  4. Gram                                         4. West Bengal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (A) A-4, B- 2, C-1, D-3        (B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1     (C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1     (D) A-1, B-2,C-3, D-4

Q93.The correct order of Indian states in terms of population size (2011 Census) is (from highest to lowest population)

  1. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal
  2. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal , Maharashtra, Bihar
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar
  4. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra , Bihar, West Bengal

Q94. Match the National Park with the State in which it is located.

National Park                                         State

  1. Balphakram                                 1. Telangana
  2. Mahavir Harina Vanasthali           2. Assam
  3. Namdapha                                   3. Meghalaya
  4. Nameri                                         4. Arunachal Pradesh

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3      (B) A-3,B-1, C-4,D-2           (C) A-3,B-4, C-2,D-1        (D) A-1, B-2,C-3,D-4

Q95. Consider the following regarding the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI)

  1. The National Dairy Research Institute started as Imperial institute of Animal Husbandry and Dairying in 1923 in Bangalore
  2. In 1936 , it was renamed as Imperial Dairy institute .
  3. NDRI shifted to its present site in Karnal in 1995

(A)1 and 2 only       (B) 2 and 3 only        (C) 1 and 3 only       (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q96. Consider the following regarding Wildlife Sanctuaries of Haryana :-

  1. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary - Jhajjar district
  2. Nahar Wildlife sanctuary - Rewari district
  3. Chhilchhila Wildlife sanctuary - Kurukshetra district
  4. Bir Shikargarh Wildlife sanctuary - Mahendragarh district
  1. (A) 1 ,2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1 ,3 and 4 only

Q97. Consider the following matches :-

1. FAME India Scheme                              - To promote environment friendly vehicles

2. PM Vikas Pahal Scheme                       - To promote development in the villages of North East.

3. Nistha                                                   - National initiative for holistic progress of school heads and teachers.

4. Pradhan Mantri Saubhagya Yojana        - Right to electricity to the poor and deprived.

Which of the above are correct matches ?

(A) 1 and 2 only        (B) 1, 2 and 3 only        (C) 2, 3 and 4 only         (D) 1, 2 ,3 and 4

Q98. Which of the following statements are true about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) ?

  1. IPPB was set up in 2016.
  2. IPPB got incorporated as a Public Limited Company with 100 percent GOI equity under Department of Posts.
  3. Post Office Savings Bank products primarily focus on encouraging digital payments and remittance whereas IPPB primarily aim at savings.
  4. Services launched by IPPB include Life and General Insurance, Digital Life Certificate, Domestic Money Transfer.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only         (B) 2, 3 and 4 only        (C) 1, 2 and 4 only          (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q99. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?

  1. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body regulating the public exhibition of films .
  2. The film ‘ Raja Harishchandra’ produced by Dadasaheb Phalke was released after the passing of the Indian Cinematograph Act 1920.
  3. CBFC launched its online portal ‘e-cinepramaan’ in 2015 to modernize and digitize film certification process
  4. The Advisory panel which assist the regional offices of CBFC in examination of film comprise
  5. of members who have been nominated by the central Govt. for a period of two years.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only

Q100. Which of the following statements are true about Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) ?

  1. INGCA is an autonomous trust set up by the Government of India under the Ministry of Culture.
  2. It has started post- graduate diploma courses to train manpower in the specialized field of heritage conservation and management.
  3. As a part of its mandate, it has to prepare the National Register on Built Heritage and Sites and the National Register on Antiquities.
  4. It is the nodal agency for the National MIssion for Manuscripts.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only