HPSC Exam MCQ Series: Polity Part-IV
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Polity Multiple Choice Questions For HCS Exam
Haryana Civil Services Exam 2020
Important 20000 MCQ Series For HCS Exam: POLITY Part-IV
Q1. All the executive powers in the Indian Constitution are vested in -
(d)Council of Ministers
Explanation: The executive power is vested mainly in the President of India, as per Article 53(1) of the constitution. The president has all constitutional powers and exercises them directly or through subordinate officers as per the aforesaid Article 53(1).
Q2. Which among the following are the three types of services envisaged in the Constitution of India?
(a)Navy Service, Air force Service and Army Service
(b)Civil Service, Military Service and Paramilitary Service
(c)All-India services, Central services and State services
(d)First Grade Service, Second Grade Service and Third Grade Services
Explanation: The All India Services comprises the three prestigious civil services of India and they are the Indian Administrative Service (IAS); Indian Police Service (IPS); and Indian Forest Service (IFS).
The Central Civil Services (CCS) are concerned directly with the union non-political executive administration and is the permanent bureaucracy of the Federal Government of India.
Q3.Supreme Court has made Right to Free Education as the part of which among the following rights?
(a)Right to life
(b)Right against Exploitation
(c)Right to freedom of speech and expression
(d)Cultural and Educational Rights
Explanation: Article 21 reads as:
“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.”
Article 21A of the Constitution - Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002. 86th Amendment Act (2002) via Article 21A (Part III) seeks to make free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for all children in the age group 6-14 years.
Q4. Which of the following states in India established Panchayati Raj in 1956?
(a)Rajasthan & Maharastra
(b)Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The Panchayat Raj system was first adopted by the state of Rajasthan in Nagaur district on 2 Oct 1959 but first started by Andhra Pradesh. During the 1950s and 60s, other state governments adopted this system as laws were passed to establish panchayats in various states.
Q5. In case a dispute arises regarding the election of President of India, it is referred to the _____?
(a)Chief Election Commissioner
Explanation: Supreme court shall inquire and decide regarding all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a president per Article 71(1) of the constitution.
Q6. A boy of 12 years is employed in a factory with a hazardous job. Which among the following is violated in this case?
(a)Right to Equality
(b)Right to freedom
(c)Abolition of Untouchability
(d)Right Against Exploitation
Explanation: The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. These are important Fundamental Rights that guarantee every citizen protection from any kind of forced labour.
Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
Q7. Which among the following amendment acts is also called a Mini constitution?
(a)52nd Amendment Act 1985
(b)42nd Amendment Act 1976
(c)1st Amendment Act 1951
(d)44thnd Amendment Act 1978
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act is also known as the "Mini Constitution" due to several amendments enacted to the constitution. the 42nd Amendment Act was enacted by the Indira Gandhi Government.
It amended/ introduced various provisions given below:
- Attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts
- Laid down Fundamental Duties for citizens
- Terms- Socialist, Secular, and Integrity added to the Preamble
Q8. High court seat of Kerala & Lakshadweep is located at?
Explanation: The High Court of Kerala is the highest court in the Indian state of Kerala and in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. It is located in Kochi.
Q9. Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming states?
(a)Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura
(b)Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
(c)Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
(d)None of the above
Explanation: Statehood was conferred upon Himachal Pradesh on 25 January 1971, and to Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on 21 January 1972. The Kingdom of Sikkim joined the Indian Union as a state on 26 April 1975. In 1987, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became states on 20 February, followed by Goa on 30 May of the same year.
Q10. At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?
(d)Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Explanation: The new Constitution of India, which came into force on 26 January 1950, made India a sovereign democratic republic. The new republic was also declared to be a "Union of States". The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main types of states and a class of territories:
Part A states, which were the former governors' provinces of British India, were ruled by a governor appointed by the president and an elected state legislature.
Part B states, which were former princely states or groups of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature.
Part C states included both the former chief commissioners' provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India.
The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government.
Q11. The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 was drawn up during the reign of which of the following?
(a)King Charles I
(b)King Charles II
(c)King William II
(d)King William III
Explanation: The writ of habeas corpus had its origins in British common law, predating Magna Carta. In its modern form, however, it was never enacted into law until the Habeas Corpus Act of 1679. Parliament passed the law during the reign of King Charles II (reigned 1660–1685) fearing that the king’s Catholic brother James (reigned as James II, 1685–1688) might succeed him and disregard English liberties. The act, which guaranteed the privilege of the petition and set forth the requirements for its execution, remains in effect in England today. It also influenced the framers to include habeas rights in the U.S. Constitution.
Q12. The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is to ensure which of the following?
Explanation: A Uniform Civil Code means that all sections of the society irrespective of their religion shall be treated equally according to a national civil code, which shall be applicable to all uniformly. They cover areas like- Marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption, and succession of the property.
Thus the UCC ensures National Integration.
Q13. With which of the following countries National People’s Congress is related to?
Explanation: The National People's Congress (usually abbreviated NPC) is the highest organ of state power and the national legislature of the People's Republic of China. With 2,980 members in 2018, it is the largest parliamentary body in the world. The National People's Congress meets in full session for roughly two weeks each year and votes on important pieces of legislation. Members are considered to be part-time legislators and are not paid.
Q14. The interpretation of the Constitution falls within the domain of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court. At least how many members are required for this bench?
Explanation: The constitution bench is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court of India which consist of at least five judges of the court which sit to decide any case “involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation” of the Constitution of India or "for the purpose of hearing any reference" made by the President of India under Article 143. This provision has been mandated by Article 145 (3) of the Constitution of India. The Chief Justice of India has the power to constitute a Constitution Bench and refer cases to it.
Q15. Before 26 November 1949, which among the following was the governing law of India?
(a)The Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)Government of India Act 1935
(c)Government of India Act 1919
(d)Government of India Act 1909
Explanation: Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949 and became effective on 26 January 1950. The constitution replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country's fundamental governing document, and the Dominion of India became the Republic of India.
Q16. In the wake of the sarkaria commission report, which state suggested the abolition of the office of the governor?
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission's charter was to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.
There was a separate chapter on the Role of Governor.
In the wake of the sarkaria commission report, Andhra pradesh suggested the abolition of the office of the governor.
Q17. The first non confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha in which of the following years?
Explanation: Acharya Kripalani moved the first-ever no-confidence motion on the floor of the Lok Sabha in August 1963, immediately after the disastrous India–China War.
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi faced the most number of no-confidence motions – 15 times, followed by Lal Bahadur Shastri and P. V. Narasimha Rao (thrice each), Morarji Desai (twice) and Jawaharlal Nehru, Rajiv Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Narendra Modi (once each). All the no-confidence motions have been defeated except when Prime Minister Morarji Desai resigned during the discussions on 12 July 1979. The most recent no-confidence motion against the Narendra Modi government was accepted by the Lok Sabha speaker, but was defeated by 325–115.
Q18. In India whose among the following the salary is exempted from Income Tax?
(d)Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Salary and other perks are decided through The President's (Emoluments) and Pension Act, 1951. ... The Salary and other perks are decided through The President's (Emoluments) and Pension Act, 1951, the salary of the president of India is TAX-FREE. The Prime Minister is required to pay tax on his taxable income.
Q19. The State Reorganization Act 1956 divided the country in 5 Zones. In which Zone Rajasthan was placed?
Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries of India's states and territories, organizing them along linguistic lines.
Following are the 5 Zonal councils:
1)Northern Zonal Council
2)Southern Zonal Council
3)Central Zonal Council
4)Eastern Zonal Council
5)Western Zonal Council
Northern Zonal Council is a zonal council that comprises the states and union territories of Chandigarh, National Capital Territory of Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Ladakh.
Q20. The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council was abolished in 1985. In which year it was revived back?
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh is one of the few states in India to have a bicameral legislature. The state established an upper house in 1957, abolished in 1985, and re-established it in 2007. The upper house cannot be dissolved and one-third of its members retire every second year.
Q21. In whose name all the contracts of the Government of India are concluded?
(a)Prime minister of India
(b)President of India
(c)Finance Minister of India
(d)Finance Secretary of India
Explanation: The answer of this question lies with article 299 of the Indian Constitution and Indian Contract Act 1872.
This article provides: 1. All contracts made in the exercise of executive power of the union or a state shall be expressed to be made by the President or by the Governor of the State as the case may be, and all such contracts and all assurances of property made in the exercise of that power shall be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor by such person and in such manner as he may direct or authorize.
Q22. Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2008 which was passed by the parliament seeks to reserve what fraction of seats in the private schools for weaker sections of the society?
Explanation: In its landmark judgment on April 12, 2012, the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which mandates a minimum of 25% free seats for children belonging to weaker sections and disadvantaged groups (EWS) in all private unaided primary schools.
Q23.Which among the following statements is correct?
(a)Both Governor and President occupy constitutional position
(b)Only Governor occupies constitutional position
(c)Only President occupied constitutional Position
(d)Neither President nor Governor occupy constitutional position
Explanation: The office of the President is very august and the Constitution attaches to it many privileges and immunities. The President along with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister comprises the Central executive which has been dealt from Article 52 to 78 of the Constitution. The President is the head of the state and the formal executive. All executive action at the centre is expressed to be taken in his name. This power has been granted to him under Article 53(1) which states that the executive power shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him.
Article 153 of the Constitution requires that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States. Article 154 vests the executive power of the State in the Governor. Article 155 says that “The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”.
Q24. For elections in Lok Sabha & Assemblies in India, the following system is used?
Explanation: In indirect elections, the territorial and proportional elections are the more popular and widely used and in India since its first election in 1952, the territorial election system is used.
The following are the main features of the territorial system:
1)In this, the entire state/country is divided into small territories and elections are conducted to the territories.
2)The voters elect individuals as MLAs/MPs.
3)There is a scope for bye-elections.
4)Scope for personal contact is also there in this system.
5)With the allotment of symbols to parties, even the illiterate will find it easy to vote.
6)Cost of elections would be high.
7)There is a chance that even with less votes polled the unpopular may be elected.
Q25. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal councils?
(a)Government of India Act 1935
(b)Indian Independence Act 1947
(c)People’s Representation Act 1950
(d)States Reorganization Act 1956
Explanation: Zonal Councils are advisory councils and are made up of the states of India that have been grouped into five zones to foster cooperation among them. These were set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
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