HCS Pre CSAT Question Paper 2017-18: CSAT Paper-II Frontier IAS
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HCS Pre CSAT Question Paper 2017-18: CSAT Paper-II Frontier IAS

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HCS Preliminary Examination 2017-18: CSAT Paper-II

 In this topic, we will discuss the HCS preliminary examination of general studies CSAT paper - ii.

Paper-II CSAT

Marks- 100                                                                                                                       Time Two Hours

Directions for the following 5 (five) items no. 1 to 5: 
The following 5 items are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of the English Language and therefore these items do not have a Hindi version. 

Observe the dilemma of the fungus: it is a plant, but it possesses no chlorophyll. While all other plants put the sun’s energy to work for them, combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure, the chlorophyll’s fungus must look elsewhere for an energy supply. It finds it in those other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it at some point in their cycle, either to other animals (like us, humans) or to fungi. 
In this search for energy, the fungus has become the earth’s major source of rot and decay. Wherever you see mould forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning into compost, or a blown down tree becoming pulp on the ground, you are watching a fungus eating. Without fungus action, the Earth would be piled high with the dead plant life of past centuries. In fact, certain plants, which contain resins that are toxic to fungi, will last indefinitely; specimens of redwood, for instance, can still be found resting on the forest floor centuries after having been blown down.
 
1. The word, best describes the fungus as depicted in the passage is 
(a) Unevolved         (b) Sporadic          (c) Parasitic          (d) Toxic 
 
2. The passage states all the following about fungi, except: 
(a) They are vastly different from other plants. 
(b) They are poisonous to resin-producing plants
(c) They can’t produce their source of energy 
(d) They can’t live completely apart from other plants 
 
3. The line “you are watching a fungus eating” is best described as 
(a) Contradictory  (b) Erroneous          (c) Ironical     (d) Figurative 
 
4. The author is mainly concerned with 
(a) Describing the auctions of fungi 
(b) Warning people of the dangers of fungi 
(c) Writing essay on fungi 
(d) Explaining the long life of some redwoods
 
5. The fungus generate energy from: 
(a) Sun  (b) Other plants  (c) Redwood (d) Decay itself 
 
Direction for the following 5 (Five) items no. 6 to 10 : 
Below in each item, to statements, I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent cause or a common cause One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between two statements. Mark answer:
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
(C) if both statements I and II are independent cause
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
 
6. Statement I:  A few parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by private vehicles. 
Statement II: Two accidents of different private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children. 
 
7. Statement I: A metro city observed the lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week. 
Statement II: Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers. 
 
8. Statement I: In last years the job market has improved for professionally qualified youth. 
Statement II: Many youths are not able to get jobs up to their expectations. 
 
9. Statement I: During peak hours’ roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city. 
Statement II: Many automobile companies are planning to launch low price vehicles. 
 
10. Statement I: During peak hours’ roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movements of vehicles. 
Statement II: Air pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past. 
 
11. Read the following two statements and answer the question given below: 
Statement I: A and B together complete the work in 10 days. 
Statement II: A takes five days more than B to complete the work. 
How long would it take A to complete the work? To answer the question, the correct choice is: 
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not sufficient
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but Statement I alone is not sufficient
(C) Both Statement I and II together are sufficient 
(D)  Each statement alone is sufficient. 
 
12. Four persons A, B, C, and D share their prize amount of Rs. 1,00,000 in such a way that four times the A’s, three times the B’s, two times the C’s and D’s prize share are equal. The sum of prize amounts of A and D is : 
(a) Rs. 40,000   (b) Rs. 48,000 (c) Rs. 54,000 (d) Rs. 60,000
 
13. A piece of work can be done by 6 men and 5 women in 6 days or 3 m3n and 4 women in 10 days. It can be done by 9 men and 15 women in 
(a) 8 days  (b) 5 days (c) 3 days          (d) 2 days 
 
14. Suppose B takes 10% less time A, to cover the same distance. IF A walks at a rate of 9 Km/h, then the speed of B in m/sec. Is : 

15. Two pipes A and B can fill a water tank in 24 minutes and 48 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then after what time the pipe B must be closed so that tank will be filled in 16 minutes?
(a) 8  (b) 10          (c) 12  (d) 16 
 
16. The smallest number which when increased by 5 is completely divisible by 8 ,11, and 24 is: 
(a) 243        (b) 259             (c) 289              (d) 303 
 
17.   If xy and (x+y)2 = (x-y)2 , then which of the following must be true?
(a) x+y = x-y                    (b) x+y = -(x-y) 
(c) x=0                            (d) xy = 0 
 
18. Krishna has some hens and goats. If the total number of animals heads are 81 and total number of animals legs are 234, then percentage of hens in total animals is: 
(a) 45%            (b) 54%                (c) 55 5/9%                  (d) 59% 
 
19. The average age of A and B is 20 years. If C were to replace A, average would be 19 and if C were to replace B, the average would be 21. The ages of C, B and A respectively are:
(a) 18,20,22                (b) 20,18,22               (c) 18,22,20          (d) 20,22,18 
 
20. The numbers are such that the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of three numbers is 56, the three numbers in order are: 
(a) 48,24, 96             (b) 96,48,24                   (c) 96,24,48         (d) 48,96,24 
 
Directions for the following 2 (two) items no. 21 and 22: 
In each of the following two items, a statement is followed by some conclusion. Choose the correct answer for the conclusion. 

21. Statement: After rice, raw cotton, cotton fabrics and carpets are a country’s largest foreign exchange-earners. 
Conclusion: At first rice was the country's largest foreign exchange earner. Subsequently, it was replaced by raw cotton and cotton fabrics. Now both these commodities have been replaced by carpets. 
(a) Definitely true             (b) Probably true 
(c) Probably  false             (d) Definitely false 
 
22. Statement: The exercise has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth willingly or unwillingly is a natural weakness of man and silence is necessary in order to suppress it. 
Conclusion: Silence is very essential for spiritual growth. Without silence, a  man becomes gullible and distorts the truth. For the discovery of truth, silence is very essential. 
(a) Definitely true             (b) Probably true 
(c) Probably  false             (d) Definitely false 
 
23. The sum of four digit numbers obtained by using digits 1,2,3 and 4, is : 
(a) 100000           (b) 60000            (c) 66600              (d) 66660 
 
24. If average of four numbers is 20 and average of their squares is 500, then average products taken two at a time is: 
(a) 450              (b) 475                   (c) 550                       (d) 650 
 
25. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and their expenditures are in ratio 5:2. If each saves Rs. 4,900 the expenses of B, is : 
(a) Rs. 1,400          (b) Rs. 1,500               (c) Rs. 1,600             (d) Rs. 1,800 
 
26. On selling an item at Rs. 40 per Kg a loss of 10% is incurred. If total loss of the seller is Rs. 80, then weight of item sold in Kg is: 
(a) 18           (b) 20                (c) 21                    (d) 24 
 
27. A shopkeeper claims to sell items at no profit no loss.  If he underweights item 800 gram in place of one Kg. and adds 20% impurities, then his profit percentage will be:
(a) 20            (b) 30              (c) 50                       (d) 55 
 
Directions for the following 3 (three) items no. 28 to 30: 
Answer the following three items based on five numbers 386, 752,961, 573 and 839 

28. If in each number the second and the third digits are interchanged, what will be the sum of the first and the third digits of the largest number?
(a) 10                   (b) 12                    (c) 15                  (d) 17 
 
29. If in each number, unit and hundredth placed digits are interchanged, the lowest number so formed is: 
375           (b) 257              (c)  161                   (d) 169  
 
30. The numbers at the unit place, of the sum of numbers at unit places of given five numbers, is: 
(a) 1                    (b) 2                (c) 3                         (d) 5 
 
31. The probabilities of four mutually exclusive and exhaustive events A, B, C and D, satisfy the relation:  2 P(A) = 3 P (B) = 4 P (C) = 6 P (D) 
The probability of event C is: 
(a) 2/15                   (b) 1/5                  (c) 4/15         (d) 2/5 
 
32. A student has 1234 marbles. He wants to arrange them in equal number of rows and columns. The minimum number of marbles that he need more for this purpose are:
(a) 62                   (b) 9                    (c) 3                    (d) 1 
 
33. Three persons A, B, C had different amount of money with them. C has an amount equal to the average of their total. A spent half of his money, B spent ? of his money and C spent all of his money. The remaining amount with them is equal to half the amount B initially have. The percentage of total amount spent by all together is: 
(a) 50%                    (b) 75%                    (c) 80%                  (d)  90% 
 
Directions for the following 2 (two) items no. 34 and 35: 
Read the information given below and answer the two items that follow: 
Five cities A, B, C, D, and E are famous for one among big gardens, rivers, educational institutions, mountains, and scents but not in the same order. 
(i) A and C has neither educational center nor have big gardens. 
(ii) B and E are not famous for rivers or mountains 
(iv) D and E are not famous for big gardens and rivers.
(v) D is not famous for educational institutions. 
 
34. The city E is famous for 
(a) Rivers                                     (b) Big gardens 
(c) Educational Institutions         (d) Scents 
 
35. Which of the following cities is famous for big gardens?
(a) D          (b) E                  (c) C                (d) B
 
Directions for the following 5 (five) items no. 36 to 40: 
The following 5 items are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of English Language and therefore these items do not have a Hindi version. 
 
Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable changes in form, structure, growth habits and even mode of reproduction, in becoming adapted to different climatic environment, types of food supply or mode of living. This divergence in response to evolution is commonly expressed by altering form and function of some parts of the organism, the original identification of which is clearly discernible. e.g., the creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine pteropods to be modified into flapping organ useful for swimming and is changed into prehensile arms that bear suctorial disks in the squids and other cephalopods. The limbs of modes of life—for swift running (cursorial) as in the horse and antelope, for swinging in trees (arboreal) as in the monkeys, for digging (fossorial) as in the moles and gophers, for flying (volant) as in the bats, for swimming (aquatic) as in the seals, whales and dolphins and for other adaptations. The structures or organs that show main change in connection with this adaptive divergence are commonly identified readily as homologous, in spite of great alterations.

36. The most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content is : 
(a) Adaptive Divergence               (b) Evolution 
(c) Unusual structure                     (d) Changes in Organs 

37. The word that can be best substituted for homologous without substantially changing the author’s meaning is: 
(a) Altered                     (b) Mammalian                 (c) Corresponding         (d) Divergent 

38. The creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine pteropods to be modified into a flapping organ useful for: 
(a) Biting               (b) Swinging                  (c) Swimming             (d) Jumping               

39. The author in this paragraph not provide information on: 
(a) Factors causes change in organisms. 
(b) How are the horse legs related to seals flippers
(c) Limbs of various mammals 
(d) Theory of evolution 

40. The author’s style can best be described as: 
(a) Humorous        (b) Patronizing         (c) Esoteric          (d) Objective 

41. The remainder when a number 2851 X28622 X28733 is divided by 23, is: 
(a) 5                     (b) 17                (c) 18                (d) 19 

42. The number of Zeros at the end of the number obtained by multiplying the numbers from 1 to 100 will be: 
(a) 16                        (b) 20              (c)  24                    (d) 36 

43. A person makes a profit of 20% by selling  an article. The percentage change in profit, if he 
Purchased the article at 20% less and sell it 10% more, is:
 (a) 50%                (b) 8%                (c) 15%                (d) 20% 
 
44. The triangle ABC with perimeter 56 and sides BC = x+1, AB= 4x and AC= 5 (x-1) is of type: 
(a) Right angle triangle                               (b) Obtuse angle triangle
(c) Equilateral triangle                                (d) Isosceles triangle 
 
45. The first bunch of bananas has 1.3 times excess to as many bananas as in the second bunch. If difference if bananas in two bunches is 12, then total number of bananas in two bunches, is: 
(a) 46                       (b) 40       (c) 63                (d) 92  

46. The sum of ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five year sgo the product of their ages was four times the father’s age at that time. The twice the difference, of father and  son’s age is: 
(a) 72                (b) 45           (c) 90                 (d) 54 
 
47. In cyclic quadrilateral WXYZ, the measure of angle Z is 10 more than twice the average of the measure of other three angles. The measure of angle X is : 
(a) 150            (b) 30               (c) 120                   (d) 60 
 
48. Brand I solution of sugar syrup has 15% sugar and another brand II, solution has 5% sugar. The quantity in liters of the second solution must be added to 20 liters of first solution to make a solution of 10% is : 
(a) 5                   (b) 10                (c) 15            (d) 20 
 
Direction for the following 2 (two) items no. 49 and 50 : 
Read the information given below and answer the two items that follow: 
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U are six members of a family, each of them are engaged in some different profession viz. Doctor, Lawyer, Professor, Engineer, Pilot, and Manager. 
(ii) Each of them stay at home on different day of the week, starting from Monday to Saturday. 
(iii) The Lawyer, in the family stay at home on Thursday. 
(iv) R remains at home on Thursday 
(v) P is a Doctor by profession, does not stay at home on Wednesday and Saturday. 
(vi) S is neither the Doctor nor a Professor and remind at home on Friday. 
(vii) Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager. 
 
49. Who is the Pilot?
(a) S 
(b) R
(c) U 
(d) Can’t be determined from given information
 
50. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Pilot-Friday                      (b) Lawyer- Tuesday 
(c) Professor-Wednesday         (d) Engineer-Thursday 
 
Direction for the following 5 (five) items no.51 to 55: 
The following 5 items are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of the English Language and therefore these items do not have a Hindi version.
 
'The emancipation of women,'' James Joyce told one of his friends, ''has caused the greatest revolution in our time in the most important relationship there is - that between men and women.'' Other modernists agreed: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 ''human character changed,'' and, illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, ''Read the 'Agamemnon,' and see whether . . . your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra.'' D. H. Lawrence wrote, ''perhaps the deepest fight for 2000 years and more, has been the fight for women's independence.''
But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination one of their ''greatest'' and ''deepest'' themes, only recently - in perhaps the past 15 years - has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked; far from it. But what we are able to see in literary works depends on the perspectives we bring to them, and now that women - enough to make a difference -are reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change.

51. The title, best describe the content of the passage is :
(a) Towards a New Criticism 
(b) Modernist writers and the Search for Equality 
(c) The meaning of Literacy works 
(d) Transforming Literature 

52. The author’s attitude towards women’s reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of: 
(a) Skepticism                 (b) Endorsement               (c) Indifferent             (d) Ambivalence 

53. The author quotes James Joyce, Virginia Woolf, and D.H. Lawrence primarily in order to show that: 
(a) These were feminist writers 
(b) Although well-meaning, they were ineffectual 
(c) Modern Literature is dependent on the women’s movement 
(d) The interest in feminist is not new. 

54. According to passage, women are changing literary criticism by: 
(a) Nothing instances of hostility between men and women
(b) Studying the works of early twentieth-century writers. 
(c) Reviewing books written by feminists 
(d) Seeing literature from fresh points of view. 

55. The word not describe the meaning of “emancipation” is: 
(a) Freedom              (b) Liberation           (c) Resistant                (d) Freezing 

56. The number of different pizza orders can a customer place, if he has options with 3 different crusts, 2 sauces and 10 different toppings are: 
(a) 120                     (b) 60                (c) 216                                (d) 64  

57. Kanika said to her friend that yesterday, I attended the birthday party of the son of the only son-in-law of my mother’s mother. How is Kanika related to the man whose birthday party she attended?
(a) Daughter                  (b) Mother                  (c) Sister                 (d) Niece

58.  The next number in the series, 
2, 3/2, 10/3,15/4,   26/5 …. Is 
(a) 5 5/6                    (b) 6 1/6                      (c) 7 5/6                          (d) 8 5/6 

59. The three of the following are alike in a certain way so as to form a singular group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(A) Plant                     (b) Branch                     (c)  Root                    (d) Leaf 

60. If the sum of squares if 3 distinct numbers is 1, then the sum of their product taken two at a time, lies in between: 
(a) ½ and -1                       (b) ½ and ¾                 (c) ½ and 1              (d) -½ and 3/2 

61. The “Shoe” is related to Leather in the same way as “Rubber” is related to : 
(a) Plastic                        (b) Latex                          (c) Polythene               (d) Sleeper 

62. Nupur walks 9 Km east, turn South-West, and walks another 8 Km. She again takes a turn towards North-West and walks another 4 Km. In which direction from her starting point is she standing now?
(a) South-East                   (b) North-East               (c) West                 (d) East 

63. The sequence of missing alphabets in the series,      PQR __|__ RSP| RS__ __| SPQ __ is: 
(a) SQQPR       (b) TTSQR                        (c) SSQQR                  (d) SQPQR 

64. In chess tournaments each player will play with all other players twice. If total matches played in the  tournaments are 272, then the number of players who participated is: 
(a) 16                   (b) 17                        (c) 19                           (d) 23 

65. If the word TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, then code for the word SITARAM is 
(a) ULXFXHU                    (b) ULXFYHU             (c) ULXGXHV          (d) ULXFXHV 

Directions for the following 4 (Four) items no. 66 to 69: 
Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Once, an ant who had come to drink at a stream fell into the water and was carried away by the swift current. He was in great danger of drowning. A dove, perched on a nearby tree, saw the ant’s danger and dropped a leaf into the water. The ant climbed onto this and was carried to safety. Sometime after this, a hunter, creeping through the bushes, saw the dove asleep and took a careful aim with his gun. He was about to fire when the ant, who was nearby, crawled forward and bit him sharply on the ankle. The hunter missed his aim and the loud noise of the gun awakened the dove from her sleep. She saw the danger and flew swiftly away to safety. Thus, the ant repaid the dove for having saved its life in the foaming current of the stream.

66. The ant repaid the dove by: 
(a) Having love with a dove                             (b)  Dropping leaf in winter 
(c) Saving the life of dove from animals          (d) Biting the hunter 

67. The dove was in danger because: 
(a) A Hunter was about to shoot him            (b) There was some big animal nearby 
(c) It had fallen off the branch                       (d) Carried away by the swift current 

68. The dove dropped a leaf into the water to : 
(a) Drown the ant                               (b) Save the ant 
(c) Measures the current level            (d) Perch on it 

69. The ant came to the stream to: 
(a) Carry out some water for kids              (b) Look at the swift current 
(c) Drink from it                                          (d) Take a bath in it 

70. The difference between the interest received from two different banks on Rs. 750 for 2 years is Rs. 90. The difference between simple interest rate changed by two banks is : 
(a) 2%                  (b) 4%                  (c) 6%                     (d) 8% 

Directions for the following 5 (Five) items no. 71 to 75: 

Read the information given below and answer the five items that follow: 
In each question below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbers I, II and III. You have to assume the given statements to be true even if they seem to deviate from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 

71. Statements: 
All desks are pillars 
All pillars are circles 
Some circles are squares 
Some squares are rectangle 

Conclusions: 
I . Some rectangles are pillars 
II. Some circles are desks. 
III. Some squares are desks. 
(a) Only I follows               (b) Only II follows 
(c) Only III follows             (d) Only I and II follows 

72. Statements: 

Some plates are knives 
All knives are chains 
Some chains are wheels 
All wheels are poles 

Conclusions: 
I . Some poles are chains 
II. Some wheels are knives 
III. Some chains are plates. 

(a) Only I follows                        (b) Only I and III follows 
(c) Only I and II  follows             (d) Only II and III follows 
 
73. Statements: 
Some roses are flowers 
Some flowers are buds
All buds are leaves 
All leaves are plants 

Conclusions: 
I . Some plants are flowers 
II Some roses are buds 
III. No leaves are roses. 

(a) Only I follows                         (b) Only I and II follows 
(c) Only I and III  follows             (d) Only II and III follows 

74. Statements: 
Some shoes are socks. 
All socks are towels 
All towels are bedsheets 
No bedsheet is blanket

Conclusions: 
I . No towel is blanket 
II Some shoes are towels 
III. Some shoes are bedsheets

(a) Only I and II follows                         (b) Only I and III follows 
(c) Only II and III follows                       (d) All follow 

75. Statements: 
All chairs are tables. 
All tables are telephones 
All telephones are cell phones
No cell phone is a computer. 

Conclusions: 
I . All cell phones are tables 
II. Some chairs are computers 
III No chair is computer 

(a) Only I follows                         (b) Only II follows 
(c) Only III  follows                      (d) Only either II or III follows 

76. The numbers of times 3 appear, number writing from 1 to 1000, is : 
(A) 243              (b) 246               (c) 297                   (d) 300 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items no. 77 to 80: 
Read the information given below and answer the four items that follow:Modern civilization is completely dependent on energy, which has therefore to be abundant and also economical. About 85% of the world’s energy is supplied by oil, coal and natural gas while nuclear, hydro, wind and solar power and biomass supply the rest. Coal, nuclear and hydro are used primarily to generate electricity while natural gas is widely used for heating. Biomass is used both for heating and cooking. The wind and solar power is the future’s hope as they are sustainable energy sources. Oil powers almost all machines that move and that makes oil uniquely versatile. Oil powered airplanes carry 500 people across the widest oceans at nearly the speed of sound. Oil powered machines produce and transport food. Oil powered machines are ubiquitous. Clearly, we live in the age of oil but it is drawing to a close. According to data available if oil production remains constant until it’s gone, there is enough to last 42 years. Oil wells will produce less as they become depleted, which will make it impossible to keep production constant. Similarly natural gas and coal will last another 61 years and 133 years respectively. Naturally, as they become scarce, they become expensive, leading to a worldwide energy crisis. If we are to survive on this planet, we have to make a transition to sustainable energy sources. The transition may be willy-nilly or planned – the choice is ours.
The dawning era of limited and expensive energy will be very difficult for everyone on earth but will be even more difficult if it is not anticipated. It is of utmost importance that the public and policymakers understand the global energy crisis and act fast to ensure that the energy sources do not become extinct. 

77. The theme of the passage is : 
(a) Changing lives                             (b) Looming energy crisis 
(c) Energy resources                          (d) Power in today’s world 

78. Biomass is an energy source used in: 
(a) Agriculture             (b) Industry               (c) Homes            (d) Offices 

79. The energy sources for the future are : 
(a) Nuclear and hydropower                      (b) Coal and natural gas 
(c) Wind and Solar Power                           (d) Oil and biomass 

80. The survival of mankind will depend on: 
(a) Maximum use of available energy resources 
(b) Transition to sustainable energy resources 
(c) Regulation placed on energy consumers 
(d) Keeping the level of energy production constant 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items no. 81 and 82: 
Read the information given below and answer the two items that follow: 
There are 120 musicians in a club and 5% of them can play all the three instruments  Viz. guitar, violin, and flute. It so happening that the number of musicians who can play. Only two of the above-mentioned instruments is 30. The 40 musicians can play guitar alone: 

81. The musicians who can either play violin alone or flute alone are : 

(a) 40   (b)    38            (c) 44                 (d) 46 

82. The musician who can play only one or three instruments are: 
(a)106                (b) 90                  (c) 88                (d) 86 

83. In a factory capacity of a solution tank A is 70% of the capacity of the another tank B. If Tank A’s full capacity is 14000 gallons and at one particular moment it is 80% full and Tank B is 40% full. How many more gallons or solutions are in tank A than in Tank B?
(a) 4200 Gallon          (b) 3200 Gallon
(c) 2800 Gallon          (d) 6300 Gallon  


84. ABCD is a square of a side    ________ cm and M, N are midpoints of sides AB and AD respectively. Then the perimeter (in cm) of trapezium BDMN so formed is:
(a) 2 (3 + 2)                    (b) 2 (2 + 2)
(c) 2 (1 + 2)                    (d) 2 (1 + 32)

85. The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6,9, 15, and 18 is 
(a) 844            (b)  704           (c) 364             (d) 94 

Direction for the following 5 (Five) items no. 86 to 90 : 
Read the information given below and answer the five items that follow: 

The five cities A, B, C, D, and E are connected by different modes of transport as follows: 
(i) A and B by boat and rail 
(ii) C and D by bus and boat 
(iii) B and E by air only 
(iv) A and C by boat only 
(v) C and E by rail and bus 

86. Without changing modes of transport, which mode of transport would help one to reach C starting from B?
(a) Air                      (b) Bus                   (c) Rail                 (d) Boat 

87.  If a person visits each of the five cities starting from A, which city he visited twice?
(a) D                     (b) C                     (c) B         (d) A 

88. Between which two cities, maximum travel options are less than four?
(a) (B,D)                       (b) (A,C)                      (c) (B,C)                   (d) (A,B) 

89. Which pair of cities are directly connected?
(a) (A,E)                    (b) (A,D)                         (c) (B,D)                     (d) (B,E) 

90. The cities where one can’t travel by air, are: 
(a) A,B                     (b) A,D,E                        (c) A,B, E                       (d) A,C,D 
 

Direction for the following 5 (Five) items no. 91 to 95 are: 
Read the information given below and answer the five items that follow: 
In another tragic Indian Air Force accident, a Mirage 2000 trainer aircraft crashed on 01/02/2019 after taking off from Hindustan Aeronautic Limited airport in Bangalore, killing two IAF officers. The aircraft was upgraded by Hindustan Aeronautical Limited. This aircraft crashed soon after taking off, suggesting a possible problem with landing gear. The accident adds to a growing list of IAF aircraft crashes in recent years. The Bangalore mishap comes days after a jaguar fighter crashed in UP’s Kushinagar. All of this is indicative of a deeper problem with aircraft inventory and maintenance, It’s well known that IAF has a severe shortage if aircrafts. It’s down to 30 fighter squadrons, which in another few years will be whittled further to 26. This has created a situation where decade old aircraft like the Mirage 2000 have to be upgraded to extend their operational lifespan. Of course, only experienced private players should get big-ticket contracts for defence production and maintenance. 
The ‘Jugaad’ approach simply cannot continue. It undermines our defence preparedness and puts our offices at risk. We need to ramp up indigenous production and create an American-style military-industrial complex. This requires greater participation of the private sector. Defense PSUs have a terrible track record as exemplified by the light combat aircraft Tejas project, which has taken more than three decades to reach the induction phase. 

91. The name of aircraft crashed in Bangalore on  01/02/2019  is 
(a) Jaguar 2019                  (b) Airbus 320                  (c) Mirage 2000          (d) Tejas 2019 

92. The approach used to increase the lifespan of aircraft is: 
(a) Total overhauling                           (b) Jugad 
(c) Upgrading internal technology        (d) Changing all defective parts 

93. To setup, American-style military-industrial complex in India, which sector’s participations are suggested?
(a) Government Sector                          (b) Private Sector 
(c) Autonomous bodies             (d) Semi government sector 

94. At present, the number of fighter squadrons IAF has:
(a) 25             (b) 26               (c) 28                 (d) 30 

95. The aircraft crashed in Bangalore was upgraded by: 
(a) Central Govt. military workshop in Delhi 
(b) Bangalore Aeronautics Limited 
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited 
(d) Pune military-industrial workshop 

96. The day of the week, on birth of Haryana state i.e. 01.11.1966 is:
(a) Friday                  (b) Saturday               (c) Monday                   (d) Tuesday 

97. A sum of Rs. 2,100 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, then number of times the maximum prize amount is more than minimum prize amount is:
(a) 1.2                   (b) 1.3              (c) 1.5                  (d) 2 

98. If the interior angles of five-sided polygon are in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5, then sum (in degrees) of measures of smallest and largest angles is:
(a) 216                     (b) 252                         (c) 108                                 (d) 324 

99. A sum of Rs. 10 is lend to be returned in 11 monthly instalments of Rs. 1 each, interest being simple. The rate of interest charged, is:
(a) 9 1/11%                       (b) 10%                  (c) 21 9/11 %                  (d) 22% 

100. There are 65 students in the class and Rs. 39 are to be distributed among them so that each boy gets 80 Paise each girl gets 30 Paise. 
The ratio of numbers of boys to number of girls in the class, is:
(a) 3:2                      (b) 4:1                           (c) 2:3                              (d) 1:4