HCS 2021 CSAT question paper and answer key - Frontier IAS
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HCS 2021 CSAT question paper and answer key - Frontier IAS

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HCS 2021 CSAT question paper and answer key - Frontier IAS 

This is the paper that was taken by HPSC on 12th September in the 2nd Half. In 1st half, HPSC took the GS paper. GS Paper is counted in merit was CSAT paper is qualifying in nature. Students need to score 33% marks. 

Option marked as bold is the correct answer. 

Direction for the following 8(eight) questions no. 1 to 8:

The following 8 questions are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of the English Language and therefore these questions do not have a Hindi version.

 

Everybody would be getting in everybody else’s way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. There is a danger of the world getting liberty-drunk in these days like the old lady with the basket, and it is just as well to remind ourselves of what the rule of the road means. It means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved,  the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at Piccadilly circus, steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hands, he is the symbol not of tyranny, but of liberty. You may not think so. You, may being in a hurry, and seeing your car pulled up by his insolence of office, feel that your liberty has been outraged. “How dare this fellow interfere with your free use of the public highway ?” Then, if you are a reasonable person, you will reflect that if he did not interfere with you, he would interfere with no one, and the result would be that piccadilly circus would & a maelstrom that you would never cross at all. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which your liberty a reality.

 

  1. From option given below, which word closely relates to the word “Lawlessness” ?

(a) liberty

(b) anarchy

(c) reasonable

(d) preserved

 

  1. Which statement describes the word “Reduced”?

(a) The liberties for everybody must be curtailed.

(b) Liberties of all may be preserved.

(c) Individual liberty would have become social anarchy.

(d) You may enjoy a social order which your liberty a reality.

 

  1. Find the closest synonyms of the underlined word from given sentence below.

He is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty.

(a) Monarchy

(b) Autocracy

(c) Democracy

(d) None of these

 

  1. Find the noun from the given options based on provided sentence.

“.... the result would be that piccadilly circus would be a maelstrom that you would never cross at all.’

(a) piccadilly

(b) circus

(c) maelstrom

(d) all of above

 

  1. Find the closest antonym of the underlined word from given Sentence.

The liberties of all may be preserved.

(a) Undecomposed

(b) Unpolluted

(c) Decomposed

(d) Maintained

 

  1. Select the correct options that best describe the following statement. 

Crossing everyone path may not leed us anywhere.

(a) Everybody would be getting in everybody else’s way and nobody would get anywhere.

(b) Individual liberty would have become social stability. 

(c) Preserving liberties of everybody must be curtailed. 

(d) None of the above

 

7.Find the verb from the given options based on provided sentence.

“... feel that your liberty has been outraged."

(a) feel

(b) liberty

(c) outraged

(d) been

 

  1. Find the opposite of the word “Witless” from the given options.

(a) anarchy

(b) curtailed

(c) reasonable

(d) insolence 

 

  1. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make given figure.

(a) 9

(b) 12

(c) 15       

(d)16

 

10 Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

 

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 10

 

  1. Which of the following element should come in place of (?).

 AB3, CE6, FI10, JN15, ?

(a) OT20

(b) TO21

(c) OT2l

(d) TS2l

 

12 Study the following and answer correctly.

Statements :

Some Mangoes are Bananas. 

Some Bananas are Apples.

Conclusions :

(I) Some Apples being Mangoes is a possibility. 

(II) No Apple is a Mango.

(a) Only Conclusion I follows.

(b) Only Conclusion II follows.

(c) Either   Conclusion I or II follows

(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. 

 

  1. If a cloud is called white, white is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, air is called blue and blue is called water, where will the birds fly?

(a) Air

(b) Cloud

(c) White

(d) Blue

 

  1. 14-15 : Each of the following questions given below is based on the given diagram. The diagram shows three circles each representing Doctors, Experienced Hospital Employee and Post Graduate.

 

  1. Which of the following represent such people who are Experienced Hospital Employees but are not Doctors?

(a) A Only

(b) C Only

(c) A and C Only

(d) F and C Only

 

  1. Which of the following represents such people who are Doctors as well as Post  Graduate?

(a) D Only

(b) B and F Only

(c) E Only

(d)B Only

 

  1. A man facing West goes 10m and turn left and covers 20m, then turns right and covers 20m, then turns right and covers 20m. At What distance the man is from the starting point? 

(a) 30m

(b) 20m

(c) 40m

(d) 50m

 

  1. In a certain code- ‘REASONING’ is written as ‘TBFSMFMGP’. How is ‘AUDITIONS’ written in that code?

(a) JRVBRMMKS

(b) CRRVMMRD

(c) JEVBRRMMK

(d) SFTUFMHHM

 

  1. If all the digits in the number 728195346 are arranged in descending order, within the number the position of how many digits will remain unchanged?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Three

(d) Two

 

  1. What should be in the place of Question mark (?) in the following letter series

AC, FH. KM, PR, (?)

(a) TV

(b) XV

(c) WU

(d) UW

 

20 Statement :

P = N > D > G < B = J

Conclusion :

(a) Only Conclusion I is true.

(b) Only Conclusion II is true

(c) Either Conclusion I or II is true

(d) Both Conclusion I and II are true

 

  1. At 12:30 the hour hand of a clock faces North and the minute hand faces South. At 2:45 the minute hand will be in which direction ?

(a) North - West

(b) West

(c) South-East

(d) East



Q22 to 24 : B is mother of T. T is sister of Y. Y is married to L. L is the only son of K. K is the daughter of P.

 

  1. How is T related to L?

(a) Cousin

(b) Sister

(c) Sister-in-law

(d) Can’t say

 

  1. How is B related to L?

(a) Mother

(b) Mother-in-law

(c) Sister-in-law

(d) Grandmother

 

  1. lf K is the mother of X, then how is X related to P?

(a) Granddaughter

(b) Grandson

(c) Daughter

(d) Can’t say

 

  1. 25 to 27 : In each question below are given three statements followed by lwo conclusion numbrrtd I and II. You have to take thc given statements to be truc even if they seem to be at variancc with commonly Lnown facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of tic given conclusions logically follows born the given statement, disregarding commonly known fact

 

  1. Statements :

No beggar is poor.

Some rich are beggar. 

All classes are poor.

Conclusions

(I) All rich being poor is a possibility.

(II) All beggars being classes is a possibility.

(a) Only  conclusion I follow.

(b) Only conclusion II follows.

(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

 

  1. Statements :

Some Kartik are Shyam.

Some Ajit are Sujit.

All Sujit are Shyam.

Conclusions :

(I) All Kartik being Sujit is a possibility.

(II) Some Shyam are not Ajit is a possibility

(a) Only conclusion I follows.

(b) Only conclusion II follows.

(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

 

  1. Statements :

No 90s are 80s. 

Some 90s are 40s.

Conclusions :

I All 80 being 40 is a possibility

II Some 70s are not 90s.

(a) Conclusion I follow.

(b) Only conclusion II follows.

(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

 

  1. If one star equals to four circles and three circles equal to four diamonds, then what is the ratio of stars to diamond?

(a) 1 : 3

(b) 3 : 4

(c) 3 : 16

(d) 16 : 3

 

  1. If BEAT = 25-22-26-7 and RUST  = 9-6-8-7, then how will you code BRUST?

(a) 25-22-9-8-7

(b) 25-9-6-8-7

(c) 25-9-8-7-6

(d) 25-6-9-8-7

 

  1. lf the number in the circle indicates the number of persons, then how many youth graduate are there?

(a) 20

(b) 30

(c) 40

(d) 50

 

Q31. The age of a mother today is thrice that of her daughter. After 12 years, the age of the mother will be twice that of her daughter, the present age of the daughter is:

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(c) 16 years

(d) 18 years

 

32 A birthday baby cuts a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of equal size. 

Each of the small pieces is twenty grams in weight. If she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the original cake?

(a) 120 grams

(b) 140 grams

(c) 240 grams

(d) 280 grams

 

Q33. Pointing towards a boy Shahrukh said ‘ he is the son of the son of my grandfather’. How is that boy related to Shahrukh?

(a) Cousin

(b) Brother

(c) Uncle

(d) Brother-in-law

 

  1. Find the odd word out.

(a) Hate

(b) Love

(c) Anger

(d) Cry

 

  1. A starts from a point and walks 5 kms north, then turns left and walks 3 kms. Then again  turns  left and walks 5 kms. Point out the direction in which he is going now.

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East

(d) West

 

  1. F : 216 : : L : ? 

(a) 1723 ,

(b) 1728

(c) 1700

(d) 1600

 

  1. Find the odd word out.

(a) Sky - Stars

(b) Moon - Planets

(c) Stadium - Players

(d) University - Students        

 

38 In the following series some of the letters are missing, Choose the correct option to complete the series.

D  F  DEE  D  EF  DE  F

(a) EFFDED

(b) EFFDDF

(c) EFFDFE

(d) EEFFDE

 

  1. If the sum of three consecutive numbers is 15, what is the square of the middle number?

(a) 16

(b) 25

(c) 36

(d) Can not be determined.

 

  1. Fill up the following. 

PENCIL : GRAPHITE : : __________ : ___________.

(a) Pen : Refill

(b) House : Bricks

(c) Car : Steel

(d) Dress : Wool

 

  1.  

2

7

9

7

3

4

9

8

?

126

168

216

 

(a) 8

(b) 3

(c) 6

(d) 36

 

  1. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday ?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 3

(d) Can not be specified

 

43 A sum of Rs. 1750 is divided amongst A, B, C and D Such that A’s share : B’s Share = B’s share  : C’s share = C’s share : D’s share= 34. How much is C’s share?

(a) 480

(b) 384

(c) 288

(d) 216

 

Read  the passage and choose the most appropriate option : (Q. No. 44 to 47)  

The 543 elected MP’s will be elected from single-member constituencies  using first-past-the-post voting. The President of India nominates an additional two members from the Anglo-Indian Community. If he believes the community is under-represented. 

 

Eligible voters must be Indian citizens. 18 or older, an ordinary resident of the polling area of the constituency and possess a valid voter identification card issued by the Election Commission of India. Some people convicted of electoral or other offences are barred from voting.

 

Earlier, there were speculations that the  Present Government might advance the 2019 general election to counter the anti-incumbency factor, however learning from its past blunder of preponing election made by the Earlier Government, was decided to go into election as per the normal schedule which was announced by Election Commission of India (ECI) on 10th March 2019, after which Model Code of Conduct was applied with immediate effect.

 

  1. Which word or phrase means “disapproval of current political officeholders” in the passage 

(a) First-past-the-post

(b) Blunder

(c) Anti-incumbency

(d) Model Code of Conduct

 

  1. Since when was the Model Code of Conduct applied with immediate effect?

(a) 23rd May 2018

(b) 10thmarch 2019

(c) 10th March 20l8

(d) 11th March 2019

 

  1. When does the President of India nominate an additional two members from the Anglo-Indian Community?

(a) When there are less than 543 elected MPs.

(b) When Anglo-Indian Community fails to send a representative

(c) When the president believes that the Anglo-Indian Community is under-represented

(d) When the President believes that the Anglo-Indian Community is over-represented 

 

  1. What are the mandatory requirements to vote in India ?

(i) Must be an Indian citizen

(ii) Must be 18 or older

(iii) Must have a valid criminal record

(iv) Must be an ordinary resident of the polling area of the constituency

(v) Must posses a valid voter identification card issued by the Election Commission of India.

Choose the correct options :

(a) (i), (ii) (iii)

(b) (ii), (i) (v), (iv)

(c) (ii),(iii),(i),(iv),(v)

(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

 

  1. Statement - Gokul is the only son of Suresh and Rani

Conclusion -    (I) Suresh and Rani have one son.

(II) Gokul has one sister.

Choose the correct conclusion

(a) Only conclusion I is valid

(b) Only conclusion II is valid

(c) Either conclusion I or II is valid

(d) Neither conclusion I or II is valid

 

  1. Jyoti has invited her three friends to her house. While watching a live cricket match, they decided to order Pizza. In between the overs, the phone number of a pizza shop flashes briefly and they all try to remember it and tried to recollect the numbers as listed below.

(i) All the four have agreed that the first three numbers are 421.

(ii) Two of them agree that the fourth number is 9.

(iii) Two of them said that the fifth number is 6.

(iv) Three of them agree that the sixth and seventh numbers are 8 and 6. 

Which of the number is most likely the telephone number of pizza shop ?

(a) 4219668

(b) 4219696

(c) 4219686

(d) 4218686

 

  1. According to John Bransford and Barry Stein, the steps involved in decision making are  

(P) Exploring possible strategies

(Q) Defining and representing the problem

(R) Identifying the problem

(S) Looking back and evaluating the effects of one’s activities

(T) Acting on strategies

(a) (R), (Q), (P), (S), (T)

(b) (R), (Q), (P), (T), (S)

(c) (R), (S), (Q), (P), (T)

(d) (R), (S), (T), (P), (Q)

 

  1. No. (51-55)

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below:

Following are the conditions for selecting an IT Officer in an organization.

The candidate must-

(i) be a B.E. / B. Tech in IT or Computer Science with at least 60% marks

(ii) be at least 20 years and not more than 26 years as on 01-11-2016

(iii) have secured at least 60% marks in written test.

(iv) have secured at least 40% marks in interview.

In the case of the candidate who fulfills all conditions except-

(a) at (ii) above, but is a post graduate, his case be referred to as GM.

(b) at (iv) above, but has secured at least 35% marks in interview and at least 70% marks in the written test, his case to be referred to as VP.

 

51 Kumar was born on 19th March, 1995. He has secured 65% marks in BE-IT. He has secured 62% marks in both written test and interview. Which of the following will be a course of action if Kumar appliers?

(a) Kumar will be selected. (b) Data inadequate to take a decision.

(c) Kumar will not be selected. (d) Kumar will be referred as GM post.

 

  1. Venkar was born on 7th November 1989. He has secured 70% marks in B. Tech. and 70% marks in his M.Tech. He has secured 65% marks in both written test and interview.

Which of the following will be a course of action if Venkat applies?

(a) He will be selected.

(b) Data inadequate to take a decision.

(c) He will not be selected.

(d) He will be referred as VP post.

 

  1. Lata has secured 78% marks in written test and 38% marks in the interview. She secured 62% in B.Tech-IT and was born on 12th Jan, 1991. Which of the following will be a course of action if Lata applies?

(a) She will be selected.

(b) She will be offered VP post.

(c) She will not be selected.

(d) She will be offered GM post.

 

  1. Disha was born on 26th July 1991. She did her graduation and post-graduation in computer science. Which condition/s below will lead to her selected as the GM?

(i) She secured 68% in graduation.

(ii) She secured 65% in M.E.

(iii) She secured 63% marks in written test and 74% marks in interview.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only

(c) (i) Only (d) Both (i) and (iii)

 

  1. Meghna completed B. Tech. in IT in the year 2012. Which condition(s) below will lead to her selected as the IT officer?

(i) She secured 65% marks in the written test.

(ii) She was born on 4th Nov. 1990.

(iii) She secured 50% marks in interview.

(a) Both (i) and (iii)

(b) Both (ii) and (iii)

(c) Both (i) and (ii)

(d) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision.

 

  1. No. (56 - 58)

For a job in a company, a candidate must fulfill the following criteria :

-  Age should be from 24 to 30 as on 15th Feb 2021.

-  Must have secured at least 58% in B. Sc. Maths.

-  Must have done postgraduate in Maths or Statistics with at least 65% marks.

-  Must have an experience of at least 2 years.

-  Must have secured 60% in written test and 50% in the interview.

 

  1. Yogesh fulfills all the above criteria, then which of the following criterion / criteria is not essential for selection ?

(i) He was born on 1st June 1992.

(ii) He completed his graduation with 66% marks and secured 75% in class 12.

(iii) He has worked for 3 years in MNO company.

(iv) He secured 65% in post-graduation in maths.

(v) He got 60% in written test and 60% in the interview.

 

(a) (iii) only

(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 

(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) all  

(d) Even with all given information, he will not be selected.



  1. Vijay fulfills all the above criteria, then which of the following criterion / criteria is not essential for selection ?

(i) He has worked in a company for 4 years.

(ii) He got 70% in B.Sc. Maths and 68% M. Sc. Statistics.

(iii) He secured 60% in written test and 54% in interview.

(iv) He was born on 3rd July 1994.

(v) His score in class 12 was 85%.

(a) (iii) only

(b) (ii) only

(c) (v) only

(d) (iii) and (iv) only

 

  1. Aradhana fulfills all the above criteria, then which of the following criterion / criteria is very much essential for selection.

(i) She scored 85% in class 12.

(ii) Her age was 26 and got experience in a company for 3 years.

(iii) She completed B. Sc. Maths with 59% and M. Sc. Maths with 66%.

(iv) Her score in interview was 54% and in written test it was 68%

 

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(c) (i) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(d)(i), (iii) and (iv) only

 

Read the passage and choose the most appropriate option : (Q. No. 59 to 62)

Philosophy of Education is a label applied to the study of the purpose, process, nature and ideals of education, it can be considered a branch of both, philosophy and education. Education can be defined as the teaching and learning of specific skill and the importing of knowledge, Judgement and wisdom, and is something broader than the societal institutions of education we often speak of.

 

Many educationalists consider it a weak and wooly field, too far removed from the practical application of the real world to be useful. But philosophers dating back to Plato and the Ancient Greeks have given the area much thought and emphasis, and there is little doubt that their work has helped shape the practice of education over the millennia.

Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in ‘ The Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy and p[olitical theory, written around 360 B.C.) In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods : removing children from their mother’s care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able. He believed that education should be holistic, including facts, skills, physical discipline, music and art. Plato believed the talent and intelligence is not distributed generically and thus is be found in children born to all classes although his proposed system of selective public education for an educated minority of the population does not really follow a democratic model.

Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. He proposed that treachers lead their students systematically and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates’ emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas. He emphasized the balancing of the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects taught, among which the explicitly mentions reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical education, literature, history and a wide range  of sciences, as well as play, which he also considered important.

During the Medieval period, the idea of perennialism was first formulated by st. Thomas Aquinas in his work ‘De Magistro’. Perennialism holds that one should teach those things deemed to be of everlasting importance to all people everywhere, namely principles and reasoning, not just facts (which are apt to change over time), and that one should teach first about people, not machines or techniq ues. It was originally religious in nature,  and it was only much later that a theory of secular perennialism developed.

During the Renaissance, the french skeptic Michel de Montaigne (1533-1592) was one of the first to critically look at education. Unusually for this time, Montaigne was willing to question the conventional wisdom of the period calling into question the whole edifice of the educational system, and the implicit assumption that university education philosophers were necessarily wiser than uneducated farm workers, for example.

 

  1. What is the difference between the approaches of Socrates and Aristotle?

(a) Aristotle felt the need for repetition to develop good habits in students. Socrates felt that students need to be constantly questioned.

(b) Aristotle felt that need for rote-learning : Socrates emphasized on dialogic learning.

(c) There was no difference.

(d) Aristotle emphasized on the importance of paying attention to human nature; Socrates emphasized upon science.

 

  1. Why do educationists consider philosophy a ‘week and woolly’ field?

(a) It is not practically applicable.

(b) Its theoretical concept are easily understood.

(c) It is irrelevant for education.

(d) None of the above.

 

  1. What do you understand by the term ‘perennialism’ in the context of the given comprehension passage?

(a) It refers to some thing which is of ceaseless important.

(b) It refers to some thing which is quite unnecessary.

(c) It refers to some thing which is abstract and theoretical.

(d) It refers to some thing which is existed in the past and no longer exists now.

 

  1. What was/were Plato’s beliefs about democratic education?

(a) He believed that only the rich have the right to acquire education.

(b) He believed in democratic education.

(c) He believed that only a select few are meant to attend schools.

(d) he believed that all pupils are not talented.

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) questions no. 63 to 66:

The following 4 questions are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of English Language and therefore these questions do not have Hindi Version.

 

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with their husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.

Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At an early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in WArsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French University, where she earned her Master’s degree and doctorate in physics.

Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists

 of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 19.6. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and she endured heart-breaking anguish. Despondently, she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself, greatly increased her distress.

Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world - famous university. In 1911, she received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.

 

  1. The Curies _______ collaboration helped to unlock the series of the atom

(a) friendly

(b) competitive

(c) courteous

(d) industrious

 

  1. Marie had a bright mind and a _______ personality.

(a) strong

(b) light-hearted

(c) humorous

(d) Strange

 

65.When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt________ .

(a) hopeless

(b) annoyed

(c) depressed

(d) worried

 

  1. Marie _______ by leaving Poland and travelling to France to enter the Sorbonne.

(a) challenged authority

(b) showed intelligence

(c) behave

(d) was distressed

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) questions no. 67 to 70 :

The following questions are based on the following passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these questions do not have Hindi Version.

 

The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian Empire in 490 B. C., is one of the most famous events in history. Darius, King of the Persian Empire, was furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek - City - States in revolt against Persian domination. In anger, the King sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire.

Persia  was  ruled  by  one  man.  ln  Athens, however,  all  citizens  helped  to  rule. Ennobled  by

this participation. Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable Victory of Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule. On their  way  to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city - states by claiming to have come in peace. The frightened  citizens  of  Delos  refused  to  believe  this.  Not  wanting  to  abet  the  conquest of Greece, they fled from their city and did  not return until the Persians had left. They  were  wise,for the Persians next conquered the city of Eritrea and captured its people.

Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. There they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the plain of Marathon, where their little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced the Athenian troops.

The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The power of the mighty Persians was offset by the love that the Athenians had for their city. Athenians defeated the Persians in both archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian,  reports  that  6,400  Persians  died, compared to only 192 Athenians.

 

  1. Athens had _________ the other Greek City - States against the Persians.

(a) refused help to  

(b) intervened  on behalf of  

(c) wanted to fight

(d) given orders for all to fight

 

  1. Darius took drastic steps to ________the rebellious Athenians.

(a)weaken

(b) destroy

(c) calm

(d) irritate

 

  1. Their participation ______ to the Atheninans.

(a) gave comfort (b) gave honour

(c) gave strength (d) gave fear

 

  1. The people of Delos did not want to _______ the conquest of Greece.

(a) end

(b) encourage

(c) think about

(d) daydream about

 

  1. A hostile situation resulting from opposing views.

(a) brainstorming

(b) compromise

(c) consensus

(d) conflict

 

  1. The person ____ is awarded is a soldier ____ father is a farmer.

(a) whom, whose

(b) whose, who

(c) who, whose

(d) whose, whom

 

  1. The word that describes an action is____

(a) an adjective

(b) an interjection

(c) an exclamation

(d) an adverb

 

  1. Communication includes -

(a) Language clarity

(b) Facial expressions

(c) Bod

(d) All of the above 

 

  1. A _____ connects phrases, clauses or sentences

(a) noun

(b) conjunction

(c) adjective

(d) adverb

 

  1. A group technique used to develop many ideas in a relatively short time.

(a) conflict

(b) consensus

(c) compromise

(d) brain - stroming

 

Directions for the following 6 questions no. 77 to 82:

The following 6 questions are based on interpersonal and communication skills therefore these items do not have Hindi version.

 

  1. Match the following parts of speech:

(1) Early (a) verb

(2) Cute (b) Common Noun

(3) People (c) Adjective

(4) tailoring (d) Adverb

 

(a) (1) - (c), (2) - (d), (3) - (a), (4) - (b) (b)  (1) - (d), (2) - (c), (3) - (b), (4) - (a)

(c) (1) - (b), (2) - (a), (3) - (d), (4) - (c) (d) (1) - (a), (2) - (b), (3) - (c), (4) - (d)

 

  1. Fill in the correct modals and semi-modals from the choice:

(1) They _______ join the duty on Friday.

(2) You _________ keep yourself clean

(3) She __________ come often.

(4) I ____________ peep in.

(a) used  to (b) dare to (c) ought to (d) need to

 

(a) (1) - (c), (2) - (d), (3) - (a), (4) - (b) (b)  (1) - (d), (2) - (c), (3) - (b), (4) - (a)

(c) (1) - (a), (2) - (b), (3) - (c), (4) - (d) (d) (1) - (b), (2) - (a), (3) - (d), (4) - (c)

 

  1. The correct spelling for the term which means ‘Smell’ is:

(a) Order

(b) oder

(c) Fodder

(d) odour

 

  1. The plural form of the word ‘genius’ is:

(a) Geniuses

(b) Genii

(c) geni

(d) geniuses

 

  1. The synonym of the word ‘nobility’ is:

(a) dignity

(b) obedience

(c) smart

(d) handsome

 

  1. Choose the most appropriate option and fill in the blank.

A relief team was sent to _________ food and medicine among the refugees.

(a) contribute

(b) distribute

(c) sanction

(d) separate

 

  1. Match the terms with the meanings given.
    (1) Misanthrope (a) Fear of dangers.

(2) Polyglot (b) Spending excess money

(3) Xenophobia (c) Person hates all mankind

(4) Squandermania (d) Person speaks many languages

 

(a) (1) - (c), (2) - (d), (3) - (a), (4) - (b) (b)  (1) - (a), (2) - (c), (3) - (b), (4) - (d)

(c) (1) - (b), (2) - (c), (3) - (d), (4) - (a) (d) (1) - (d), (2) - (a), (3) - (c), (4) - (b)

 

 

  1. Match the following terms :

(1) Palaeontology (a) Study of atmosphere climate

(2) Ornithology ' (b) Study of insects

(3) Entomology (c) Study of the fossils

(4) Meteorology (d) Study of birds

 

(a) (1) - (c), (2) - (d), (3) - (b), (4) - (a) (b)  (1) - (d), (2) - (b), (3) - (c), (4) - (a)

(c) (1) - (a), (2) - (b), (3) - (c), (4) - (d) (d) (1) - (b), (2) - (c), (3) - (d), (4) - (a)

 

  1. Match the following:

(1) Ophthalmologist (a) Who treats kidney diseases

(2) Neonatologist (b) One who treats disease of the nervous system

(3) Nephrologist (c) One who treats critical infants

(4) Neurologist (d) One who treats vision problem

 

(a) (1) - (d), (2) - (c), (3) - (a), (4) - (b) (b)  (1) - (a), (2) - (d), (3) - (b), (4) - (c)

(c) (1) - (b), (2) - (c), (3) - (a), (4) - (d) (d) (1) - (c), (2) - (a), (3) - (b), (4) - (d)



  1. If nCx = 126 and nPx = 3024 then find n and x.

(a) 7.3

(b) 8.4

(c) 8.3

(d) 9.4

 

  1. A man takes 50 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/h. If he walks with a speed of 10 km/h, he covers the same distance in ______.

(a) 10 minutes

(b) 20 minutes

(c) 30 minutes

(d) 40 minutes

 

  1. Which is the largest: 2, 43,58, 45?

(a)2

(b) 43

(c)58

(d) 45  

 

  1. The average age of 14 students is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is added the average increase by 1. What is the age of the teacher?

(a) 32

(b) 30

(c) 28

(d) 29

 

  1. 18 people can do a work in 45 days. To complete the work in 30 days, how many people would be required?

(a) 27

(b) 21

(c) 30

(d) 45

 

  1. A boy is presently one-thid of the age of his father. After 7 years he will be half of the age of his father. Find the present age of the son.

(a) 12

(b) 15

(c) 10

(d) 7

 

  1. Which option contains the fractions in ascending order ?

(a) 1113,1317,1823,913

(b) 913,1112,1317,1823

(c) 1112,1823,913,1317

(d) 913,1317,1823,1112

 

  1. A person has some hens and some cows. The ratio of number of heads and number of legs is

18 : 43. Find the number of hens, if the number of heads is 72. 

 

(a) 58

(b) 60

(c) 56

(d) 62

 

  1. A tank is morally filled in 6 hours but takes 4 hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the tank is full, then the leak will empty it in how much time ?

(a) 20 hr

(b) 12 hr

(c) 16 hr

(d) 15 hr

 

(95-96). Study the following graph to answer the given questions:

Production of a company (in lakh units) over the given years.



  1. Which year had the highest percent increase in production over the previous year?

(a) 2000

(b) 1999

(c) 2002

(d) 1997



  1. What is the approximate average production (in lakhs) for the given years ?

(a) 18

(b) 18.5

(c) 19

(d) 20

 

  1. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs. coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the bag is Rs.160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs. coins as there are 25 paise coins, then what is the number of 50 paise coins?

(a) 60

(b) 40

(c) 120

(d) 80



  1. Two trains length of 130 m and 110 m run on parallel tracks. When running in the same direction, faster train cross slower one in 20 sec. While running in opposite direction at their speed they pass each other completely in 12 sec. Find the speed of each train.

(a) 30 m/s, 20 m/s

(b) 16 m/s, 4 m/s

(c) 20 m/s, 8 m/s

(d) 15 m/s, 27 m/s 



  1. A batsman has a definite average for I I innings. That batsman score 120 runs in his 1 /tg inning due to which his average increased by 3 ruffs. Accordingly, what is the average of the batsman after 12 innings ?

(a) 65

(b) 70

(c) 60

(d) 72

 

100 A batsman scored 125 runs which included 5 boundaries and 6 sixes. What percent of the total score did he make by running b/w the wickets ?

(a) 5515%

(b) 45511%

(c) 5545%

(d) 55%