UPSC prelims Test Series: General Studies Paper 1 code 201

UPSC prelims Test Series: General Studies Paper 1 code 201

UPSC prelims Test Series: General Studies Paper 1 code 201

UPSC prelims Test Series: General Studies Paper 1 code 201

Total Question: 100

Time alloted: 2 hours.

Each question carries: 2 marks

Negative marking: 1/3 marks

Q1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about NITI Ayog?
1. NITI Ayog was established on 1st January 2015.
2. It is a statutory body
3. Governing council includes PM, Chief Ministers of all states, Lieutenant governors of all Union territories.
4. Ms. Sindhushree Khullar is the first CEO.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2 only
Q2 Which of the following is/are the features of National Mental Health Policy 2014?
1. 10th Oct will be observed as Mental Health day.
2. Auxiliary midwives will be imparted training for mental healthcare.
3. Caregivers of mentally-ill patients, will be given financial support.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2 only
c) 2,3 only
d) 3 only
Q3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ISRO’s Mars Orbitor Mission (2013-14)?
1. It will study atmosphere using Photometer and Methane sensor.
2. Launch vehicle used is GSLV.
3. It will study surface using camera and spectrometer.
4. Mission estimated cost is Rs 4500 crore.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4 only
c) 3,4 only
d) 1,3 only
Q4. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
a) Spam : useless messages spreading through internet/emails
b) Phishing: inducing you to reveal your passwords/ bank details.
c) Spyware : covertly tracks your activities
d) Trojan: copies and disitributes itself through networks
Q5 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the temperature?
1. Temperature is the most ecologically relevant environmental factor.
2. Average temperature on land varies seasonally.
3. Temperature increases progressively from plains to the mountain tops.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2 only
c) 2,3 only
d) 2 only
Q6 How do the organisms manage with stressful conditions?
1. Bears: Hibernation
2. Fish: Aestivation
3. Zooplankton: Diapause
4. Fungi: Spores
Choose correct pair(s) match from the above
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,2
d) 2,3,4

general studies paper 1
Q7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Sun is not the source of energy at deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem.
2. Chemosynthetic bacteria fix suns’ radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic materials.
3. Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the photo synthetically active radiation.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3
c) 1,3 only
d) 3 only
Q8. Choose the correct pair(s).
1. Birds: Secondary Consumer
2. Grasshopper: Primary Consumer
3. Man: Tertiary consumer
4. Wolf: secondary consumer
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 3,4
Q9. In most ecosystems
1. Producers are more in number and biomass than herbivores.
2. Herbivores are more in number and biomass than carnivores.
3. Energy at a lower level is always more than at a higher level.
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1,2 only
d) 1,2,3
Q10. The areas where secondary succession begin
1. Abandoned farm lands
2. Burned or cut forests
3. Flooded lands
4. Cooled lava
5. Newly created reservoir
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 2,3,4,5
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,3,5
Q11. Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
1. Respiratory activities of the producer.
2. Decomposers
3. Burning of wood
4. Volcanic activity
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,3
c) 1,2,3,4
d) 2,3,4

Q12. Highest number of species is in
a) Lichens
b) Algae
c) Fungi
d) Angiosperms
Q13. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
1. Decline in plant production.
2. Higher resistance to environmental perturbations
3. Increased variability in certain ecosystems.
a) 1,2
b) 1,3
c) 1,2,3
d) 1 only
Q14. Presence of large amount of nutrients in waters causes
1. Excessive growth of planktonic
2. Distinct colors to the water bodies
3. Fish growth increases.
4. Fish growth decreases.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,4
Q15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ozone?
1. Ozone found in troposphere is harmful for plants and animals.
2. Ozone acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
3. Thickness of ozone is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU).
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2 only
c) 2,3 only
d) 2 only
Q16. Which of the following is/are responsible for heating of atmosphere which causes global warming?
1. Carbon Di-oxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Chlorofluorocarbon compounds
5. Water vapors
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 2,3,4,5
c) 3,4,5
d) 1,4,5 only
Q17. Phermons are chemicals
a) formed by fermentation process of fungi
b) secreted by endocrine glands of man.
c) secreted outside the body of insects.
d) plant growth hormones.
Q18. Which of the following describes the liquid phase?
a) It has a definite shape and a definite volume.
b) It has a definite volume but not a definite shape.
c) It has neither a definite volume but not a definite shape.
d) It has neither a definite shape nor a define volume.
Q19. On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the other end becomes hot because of
a) Resistance of the metal.
b) Mobility of atoms in the metal.
c) Energized electrons moving to the other end.
d). minor perturbation in the energy of atoms.
Q20. Which of the following statements is not true about the oil-in-water type emulsion?
a) On addition of small amount of water, no separate layer of water appears.
b) On addition of oil, separate layer of oil is formed.
c) Addition of an electrolyte causes the conductivity of the emulsion to increase.
d) Addition of small amount of oil soluble dye renders the entire emulsion colored.
Q21 Optical fibre are used for long distance communication because
a) It amplifies signals to be transmitted
b) It transfers signals faster than electrical cables.
c) It pre-emphasise weak signals.
d) It provide little attenuation as compared to electrical cable for light propagation.
Q22. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of
a) Potential difference between them.
b) Mutual inductance between them.
c) Electric forces between them
d) Magnetic forces between them.
Q23. The gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid thermometers because
a) Gases expand more than liquids.
b) Gases are easily obtained.
c) Gases are much lighter.
d) Gases do not easily change their states.
Q24. Which of the following statement about viruses is correct?
a) Viruses posses their own metabolic system.
b) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
c) Viruses are facultative parasites.
d) Viruses are readily killed by antibodies.
Q25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a) Fungi: Saprophytic parasitic mode of nutrition.
b) Monera: Nuclear membrane is present.
c) Plantae: Cell wall made up of cellulose
d) Animalia- Cell wall is absent
Q25. Mosses are of great ecological importance because of
a) its contribution to prevent soil erosion.
b) its contribution in ecological succession.
c) Its capability to remove CO from the atmosphere.
d) Both a and b.

Q26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organisms in the kingdom Animalia?
a) Storage of carbohydrates as starch
b) Multicellularity.
c) Obtaining nutrients by ingestion.
d) Having eukaryotic cells without walls.
Q27. Most plants are green in colour because
a) The atmosphere filters out all the colours of the visible light spectrum except green.
b) Green light is the most effective wavelength region of the visible spectrum in sunlight for photosynthesis.
c) Chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing green light.
d) Green light allows maximum photosynthesis.
Q28. Which is correct about transport or conduction of substances?
a) Inorganic food moves up through phloem.
b) Organic food moves up through phloem.
c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and downwardly through xylem.
d) Organic food moves upwardly and downwardly through phloem.
Q29. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is
a) Random mutation.
b) Genetic recombination.
c) Directed mutation.
d) Acquired heritable change.
Q30. Which one is wrongly matched?
a) yeast- Ethanol
b) Streptomyces- Antibiotics
c) Lactobacillus : Beer
d) Methanogens : Gobar Gas
Q31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ‘Global Positioning System Aided Geo Augmented Navigation System (GAGAN)?
1. It is developed for civil aviation purposes.
2. It is a joint effort by the ISRO and the Airports Authority Of India (AAI).
3. It is not a separate independent navigation system.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,3
c) 2,3
d) 2 only
Q32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about panchayati raj act?
1. Minimum age to become panchayat member is 25 years
2. All the questions of disqualifications shall be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines.
3. The act provides for two tier system of panchayti raj in every state.
4. All the members of panchayats at district level should be elected directly by people.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 2,4
d) 1 only
Q33. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2014 was introduced in Lok Sabha on December 23, 2014. The Bill amends the Citizenship Act, 1955. Which is/are the feature(s) of the bill?
1. Merger of Overseas Citizen of India and Persons of Indian Origin.
2. The Act provides that where a person renounces their overseas citizenship, a minor child of such person who is registered as an Overseas Citizen of India shall also cease to be an Overseas Citizen.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q34 After passing money bill in the state legislature, it is presented to the governor for his assent. What alternatives he has?
1. He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
3. He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
c) 1,3
d) 1 only
Q35 which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the privileges belongs to each house of Parliament collectively?
1. It cannot exclude strangers e.g. media persons from its proceeding.
2. The courts are prohibited to inquire into the proceedings of a house or its committees.
3. No person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested within the premise of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3
c) 3 only
d) 2 only
Q36. The charged expenditure is not- votable in parliament. Which of the following is/are charged expenditure?
1. Pensions of the judges of high courts.
2. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajyasabha.
4. Salaries and allowances of prime minister and cabinet ministers.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3 only
d) 3 only.
Q37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Financial Commission?
1. Finance Commission is a statutory body.
2. Finance commission is appointed for five years by President.
3. Y.V. Reddy is the 14th Finance commission.
4. 14th Finance commission period of report implementation is 2014-2019.
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3 only
d) 2 only
Q38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about drafting committee of the constitutional assembly?
1. There were seven members in the committee including its chairman.
2. The drafting committee took less than six months to prepare its draft.
3. Dr. K M Munshi and N. M. Rau joined later as replacement of B L Mitter and T T krishnamachari.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1, 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 only
Q39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the directive principal of state policy?
1. The directive principles are non- justifiable in nature.
2. They seek to political democracy in the country.
3. The directive principles resemble the ‘Instruments of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India act of 1935.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 3 only
Q40. Which of the following statement is true about Fundamental Rights (FR)?
a) The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of social democracy.
b) There are six Fundamental Rights which is provided by the constitution.
c) Framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of the former USSAR.
d) Right to vote is a Fundamental Right provided in the constitution to all the citizens who attain 18 years of age.
Q41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the National Judicial Appointments Bill 2014?
1. The Commission shall recommend for appointment the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court as the Chief Justice of India if he is considered fit to hold the office.
2. The Central Government shall, within a period of sixty days from the date of coming into force of this Act, intimate the vacancies existing in the posts of Judges in the Supreme Court and in a High Court to the Commission for making its recommendations to fill up such vacancies
3. The Convenor of the Commission shall be the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Justice.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,3 only
c) 2,3 only
d) 1,2 only
Q42. Which of the statement(s) is/are true about Supreme Court Judges?
1. Tenure of the Supreme Court judge is five years.
2. He can resign his office by writing to the president.
3. He can be removed from his office by the president on the recommendation of the parliament.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3 only
c) 1,2 only
d) 2 only
Q43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
1. Indian rupee is fully convertible in current account.
2. Indian rupee is fully convertible in capital account.
3. Capital account convertibility in India is partial
Choose the correct code
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2 only
c) 1,3 only
d) 1 only
Q44. Which of the following is/are true about Indian exchange rate system?
1. India follows managed floating exchange rate system.
2. Most of the countries in the world follow floating exchange rate system.
3. Under managed floating exchange rate system official reserve transactions are not equal to zero.
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3 only
c) 1only
d) 1, 3 only
Q45. The term dirty floating is used for
a) When foreign companies sell their portfolio unethically.
b) When foreign companies sell domestic currency unethically.
c) When central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements.
d) Dirty tricks used by private commercial banks to manipulate exchange rate movements.
Q46. Consider the following statement(s)
1. SAFTA has replaced SAPTA.
2. 8 members countries including India have decided to create free trade area
3. Member nations agreed to reduce tariff to 0-5% by 2016.
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1,2 only
d) 1,2,3
Q47.. Consider the following statement(s) regarding FRBM act .
1. FRBM act target effective revenue deficit
2. Quarterly review of the trends in receipts and expenditure in relation to the budget to be placed before both Houses of Parliament
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 48.. Which of the following is not an inflationary way of deficit reduction?
a) Increasing direct tax
b) Increasing indirect tax
c) Printing more currency
d) Borrowing from public
Q49. Which is the best method of deficit reduction which has been the major thrust in the recent past?
a) Raising receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs.
b) Reduction in Govt. Expenditure
c) Reduction in transfer payments
d) Borrowing from RBI

Q50. Bank Rate is
a) The rate at which commercial banks lend capital to corporate.
b) The rate at which customers deposit their saving in bank saving account.
c) The rate at which when commercial banks deposit their surplus in RBI
d) The rate of interest payable by commercial banks to RBI if they borrow money from the later in case of shortage of reserves.
Q51. Which of the following is/are method(s) of calculating national income?
1) Income method
2) Expenditure method
3) Value added method
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2 only
c) 1 only
d) None
Q52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Depreciation is decrease in value of currency as per demand and supply
2. Devaluation is decease in value of currency through government intervention.
Choose the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q53. Which of the following is/are likely to increase exports?
1. Devaluation in currency
2. Depreciation in currency
3. Valuation in currency
4. Appreciation in currency
Choose the correct code
a) 1 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,2
d) 3,4
Q54. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
a). market rate of interest is likely to fall
b). Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
c). Central Bank is following an easy money policy
d). Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Q55. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q56. Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q57 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) Guidelines, 2014 1. SBM-U is a sub-mission of the Swachh Bharat Mission and will be in effect till October 2, 2017.
2. The total estimated cost of implementation of SBM-U is Rs 62,009 crore.
3. States will contribute a minimum of 25% funds towards all components to match 75% central share.
4. SBM-U will have a three-tier management structure at the national, state and local level
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 3,4
d) 4 only.
Q58 Who is called the second Ashoka with reference to Budhism?
A) Kanishka
B) Menander
C) Ananda
D) Vasumitra
Q59 Who was the first Rashtrakuta ruler to intervene in the tripartiate struggle?
A) Amogvarsha 1
B) Dhruva
C) Govinda 3
D) Dantidurga
Q60 Haihara and Bukka the founders of Vijaynagar empire had earlier served under-
A Yadavas of Devagiri
B Hoyasalas of Dwarsamundra
C Kakatiyas Of Warangal
D Pallavas of Kanchi
Q61 Which of the following changes were made in the British administration after the revolt of 1857 according to the queens proclamations ?
1 The British assured that the era of annexations and expansions was over.
2 The civil services were opened for the Indians and there would be an open exam conducted in England.
Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) 1,2 Both D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q62 What was/were the reason(s) for the Muslim League to join the Congress in its 1916 session?
1 Britian’s refusal to help Turkey and take a pro Turkey stand after the first world war.
2 Withdrawing of the partition of Bengal had infuriated the Muslims.
3 The younger muslims realized that only by working along with the Congress could there be any positive outcome.
Codes A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2
C) 1,3 D) 1
Q63 Which of the following was/were decided at the Lahore session of the Congress in 1929?
1 The first RTC to be boycotted.
2 Complete independence to be the goal of the Congress
3 A civil disobedience to be launched making salt as the central issue in March to create pressure on the British Government and Purna Swaraj to be achieved within five years.
4 Jan 26,1930 declared as the first Independence day.
Codes A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3
C) 1,4 D) 1,2,4
Q64 Consider the following statements related to the development of Indian Press during the British statements. Which of the statements is/are correct?
1 The Bengal Gazette was the first newspaper to be published in India.
2 Amrit Bazaar Patrika changed into an English newspaper overnight when the vernacular press act was passed.
3 Lord Ripon had repealed the Vernacular press act.
Codes A) 2,3 B) 2
C) 3 D) 1,2,3
Q65 Consider the following the statements about the civil services. Which of the statements is/are correct?
1 In Lord Dalhousie’s time the exam for Civil services became an open exam.
2 The maximum permissible age was reduced from 23 to 19 years.
3 Surender Nath Banerjee was the first Indian to qualify the civil services.
Codes A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2
C) 2,3 D) 2
Q66 Which of the following was/were teachings of Brahmo Samaj?
1 It believed in the doctrine of Karma.
2 It believed in the transmigration of soul.
3 It believed in the supremacy of the Vedas.
4 It believed that human reason and logic was supreme and should be applied rationally.
Codes A) 1,3,4 B) 1,4
C) 2,4 D) 4
Q67 With reference to Odissi, one of the major dances of India which of the following statements is /are correct?
1 It is the second oldest dance form in India after Bharatnatyam and was originally associated to temples.
2 The tribhanga posture is deeply associated to it.
3 The jewellery to be worn is silver jewellery and the hair is neatly tied in a bun and bright coloured sarees are worn.
Codes A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3
C) 2,3 D) 2
Q68 As per Jainism what is a Bodhisattva?
A) Various incarnations of Lord Buddha.
B) Followers of Lord Buddha who have attained Nirvana.
C) One who has come into this world to guide others to live a life of virtue and to help them to attain Nirvana.
D) One striving to get enlightened.
Q69 Which of the following are non believers in God?
1 Sankhya
2 Jainism
3 Mimamsa.
Codes A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2
C) 2,3 D) 2,3
Q70 The UNESCO has inscribed which of the following performing art forms from India in the world heritage list?
1 Mudiyettu , a ritual theatre of Kerela.
2 Chhau Dance
3 Kalbelia folk Dance
Codes A) 1,2 B) 2,3
C) 1,3 D) 1,2,3
Q71 Waves are mainly caused due to-
A) Rotation of the earth.
B) Revolution of the earth
C) Wind action
D) Centrifugal force.
Q72 Consider the following about ocean currents. Which of them is/are correct?
1 Their direction is reversible.
2 Areas where warm and cold currents meet experience foggy weather.
3 Ocean currents influence the weather of an area.
Codes A) 1,2
B) 1,2,3
C) 2,3
D) 3
Q73 When do Spring tides occur in a month?
1 Full moon day
2 New Moon day
3 Moon is in the first quarter
4 Moon is in the last quarter.
Codes A) 1,2
B) 3,4
C) 1,3
D) 2,4
Q74 Consider the following about seamounts and guyots. Which of them is/are correct?
1 Both are volcanic in origin.
2 Both reach the surface of the ocean.
Codes A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1,2
D) neither 1 nor 2
Q75 Which of the following are considered to be indirect sources that throw light upon the interior of the earth?
1 Gravitation
2 Magnetic field
3 Seismic Activity
Codes A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 3
D) 2,3
Q76 Which of the following sedimentary rocks are mechanically formed?
1 Sandstone
2 Limestone
3 Loess
Codes A) 1,2
B) 2,3
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,3
Q77 Mineral grains are found to be of large size in igneous rocks that-
A) cool nearer to the surface.
B) cool farther away from the surface
C) cool at an intermediate level
D) Size of grains has nothing to do with the location of cooling.
Q78 Consider the following about the earth’s crust. Which of them is/are correct?
1 Oxygen is the most abundant element found in it.
2 The crust has the highest density in comparison to the mantle and core.
3 Oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust.
Codes A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 1,3
D) 3
Q79 The most explosive volcanoes of the world are-
A) Composite Volcanoes
B) Caldera Volcanoes
C) Shield Volcanoes
D) Basaltic volcanoes.
Q80 Frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow water in the form of precipitation is
A) Sleet
B) Hail
C) Snow
D) Graupel
Q81 Which of the following tributaries of Indus do/does not have their source in India?
1 Ravi
2 Sutlej
3 Beas
4 Chenab
5 Jhelum
Codes A) 1,3 B) 1,2,5
C) 1,4 D) 2
Q82 What is farm forestry?
A) It is the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands.
B) It is the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial purpose on their own lands without the help of the government.
C) It is the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial purpose on their own lands with the help of the government.
D) It is the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands and is done with the help of Different bodies such as NGOs
Q83 “In these soils the kankar layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water.So when irrigation is made available the soil moistutre helps for a sustainable plant growth.” These lines refer to which kind of soil available in India-
A) Peaty soil
B) Black Soil
C) Desert Soil
D) Red Soil
Q84 In India cultivable land that is left uncultivated for more than an year but less than five years is known as-
A) Current Fallow.
B) Culturable waste land
C) Fallow other than current fallow.
D) Barren land
Q85 Consider the following statements about thorium. Which of them is/are correct?
1 Thorium can be obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands of kerela.
2 World’s richest monazite deposit is located in India.
Codes A) 1
B) 2
C) 1,2
D) neither 1 nor 2
Q86 Which of the following purposes does rain water harvesting serve?
1 Increases water availability.
2 Improves quality of groundwater.
3 Dilutes contaminants like fluorides and nitrates.
4 Checks flooding.
Codes A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1
Q87 Which is the busiest Sea route in the world?
A) Mediterranean Indian Ocean sea route.
B) Northern Atlantic Sea Route.
C) South Pacific sea route
D) Cape of Good Hope Sea route.
Q88 Which of the following countries has the densest rail networks in the world?
A) Belgium
B) Japan
C) Canada
D) Russia
Q89 How do marine aninals adapt to the aquatic Ecosystem?
1 Osmoregulation.
2 Bioluminescence.
3 Dependence for food in the upper sea zones.
Codes A) 1,2 B) 1,3
C) 2,3 D) 1,2,3
Q90 Which of the following is the major cause for land degradation in the world? Pg 158
A) Deforestation
B) Overgrazing
C) Agricultural mismanagement
D) Industrialization
Q91 Suspended Particulate matter (SPM) in the atmosphere is a cause for-
1 Reduced sunlight and visibility.
2 Increases corrosion.
3 Increases asthma and cancer
4 Interferes with formation of red blood cells.
Codes A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2
C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4
Q92 Which of the following industries is maximum consumer of water in India?
A) Engineering
B) Paper and pulp
C) Textiles
D) Thermal power
Q93 Consider the following steps in water recycling and arrange them chronologically beginning with the earliest?
1 Filtration 2 Disinfectation
3 Coagulation 4 Sedimentation
5 Aeration 6 Softening
Codes A) 1,3,2,5,4,6 B) 4,3,1,2,6,5
C) 4,3,1,6,2,5 D) 4,1,3,2,6,5
Q94 Consider the following statements about the groundwater resources in India.Which of them is/are correct?
1 Most of the replenish able groundwater resource in India lies in the Ganga- Brahmaputra basin.
2 The state of Tamil Nadu has one of the highest utilization in the country.
Codes A) 1
B) 2
C) both 1 and 2
D) neither 1 nor 2
Q95 What are the advantages of using bio energy?
1 It utilizes all kinds of wastage and garbage.
2 Reduces pressure on fuel wood.
3 Causes little pollution in comparison to other traditional resources.
4 It will enhance self reliance in rural areas.
Codes A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,4
C) 1,2,3 D) 2,4
Q96 Which of the following rains will have the highest ph value?
A) First rains of the winter season
B) First rains after the summer season
C) Rains towards the end of the rainy season.
D) Rains in coastal areas.
Q97 Which of the following wastelands are primarily caused due to natural agents?
1 Barren rocky areas.
2 Gullied land.
3 Water logged areas.
Codes A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 2,3
D) 1,3
Q98 Maximum fresh water is is trapped in-
A) Underground Aquifers
B) Ice Caps
C) Fresh water lakes
D) Atmosphere
Q99 Houses on stilts will be found in –
A) Rainy areas
B) Plain areas
C) Mountainous regions
D) Very hot areas
Q100 Consider the following statements about greenhouse gases. Which of the following is/are correct?
1 Among the green house gases carbon di oxide is the largest gas.
2 Oceans are considered the sinks of carbon dioxide.
Codes
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key

Test GS 201
Q A Q A
1 b 51 a
2 a 52 c
3 d 53 c
4 d 54 d
5 b 55 d
6 a 56 c
7 a 57 b
8 a 58 a
9 d 59 b
10 c 60 c
11 c 61 a
12 c 62 b
13 b 63 d
14 d 64 d
15 a 65 b
16 a 66 d
17 c 67 c
18 b 68 c
19 c 69 b
20 d 70 d
21 d 71 c
22 d 72 c
23 a 73 a
24 b 74 d
25 d 75 a
26 a 76 c
27 c 77 b
28 d 78 c
29 a 79 b
30 c 80 a
31 a 81 d
32 c 82 c
33 c 83 c
34 a 84 c
35 b 85 c
36 b 86 c
37 c 87 b
38 b 88 a
39 c 89 d
40 b 90 b
41 b 91 d
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 b
44 d 94 c
45 c 95 d
46 d 96 c
47 c 97 b
48 a 98 b
49 b 99 a
50 d 100 c

 

 

 

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